Nokea
A patient who has recently undergone ESWL for the manage her new ileal conduit in the home setting. To treatment of renal calculi has phoned the urology prevent leakage or skin breakdown, the nurse should
- A. Remind the patient that renal calculi have a encourage which of the following practices?
- B. Empty the collection bag when it is between on
- C. half
- D. and two-thirds full.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Emptying the collection bag when it is between half and two-thirds full helps prevent leakage and skin breakdown by maintaining proper drainage and preventing overfilling. This practice also reduces the risk of urinary stasis and infection.
Choice A is incorrect because it is not related to the management of an ileal conduit. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the specific issue of proper bag emptying to prevent leakage. Choice D is incorrect as waiting until the bag is too full can lead to increased pressure, potential leakage, and skin breakdown.
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Which of the following antifungal agent act as fungicidal by inhibiting the * synthesis of β1,3 glucan used for the disseminated mucocutaneous Candida infections?
- A. Caspofungin
- B. Amphoterecin B
- C. Flucytosine
- D. Ketoconazole resistance rapidly?:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
Caspofungin is a echinocandin antifungal that inhibits the synthesis of β1,3 glucan in the fungal cell wall, leading to cell death. This mechanism makes it fungicidal against Candida infections. Amphotericin B disrupts fungal cell membranes, while Flucytosine interferes with DNA/RNA synthesis. Ketoconazole inhibits ergosterol synthesis. Therefore, A is correct as it targets the specific mechanism for Candida infections.
The following tetracycline has the potential to cause vestibular toxicity: *
- A. Doxycline
- B. Oxytetracycline
- C. Minocycline
- D. Demeclocycline
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Minocycline. Minocycline has a higher potential for vestibular toxicity compared to other tetracyclines due to its greater lipid solubility, leading to increased penetration of the blood-brain barrier and inner ear. This can result in dizziness, vertigo, and imbalance.
Choice A, Doxycycline, is less likely to cause vestibular toxicity since it has lower lipid solubility and reduced penetration into the inner ear. Choice B, Oxytetracycline, and Choice D, Demeclocycline, also have lower potential for vestibular toxicity compared to Minocycline due to similar reasons. Overall, Minocycline stands out as the correct answer due to its unique pharmacokinetic properties that predispose it to vestibular toxicity.
A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of pelvic pain, urinary urgency, and dysuria. The nurse suspects interstitial cystitis. Which of the following is a common symptom of interstitial cystitis?
- A. Severe abdominal cramping.
- B. Painful urination and frequent bladder infections.
- C. Frequent urination and pelvic pressure.
- D. Dysuria and urinary retention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Painful urination and frequent bladder infections. Interstitial cystitis is characterized by chronic bladder inflammation causing pain and discomfort during urination. This leads to painful urination and an increased risk of developing frequent bladder infections due to the compromised bladder lining. Severe abdominal cramping (A) is not a common symptom of interstitial cystitis. Frequent urination and pelvic pressure (C) are also common symptoms but not specific to interstitial cystitis. Dysuria and urinary retention (D) are not typically associated with interstitial cystitis.
A 20 year old patient presented to the ER with headache, stiff neck and fever for 3 days and is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Which one of the following antibiotics is the best choice to treat meningitis?
- A. Cefuroxime
- B. Cephalexin
- C. Cefotaxime
- D. Cefdinir
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Cefotaxime (C) because it is a third-generation cephalosporin with excellent penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid, making it effective against bacterial meningitis pathogens. Cefotaxime covers a broad spectrum of bacteria commonly causing meningitis, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis.
A: Cefuroxime (A) is not the best choice as it has limited activity against some of the common pathogens causing meningitis.
B: Cephalexin (B) is a first-generation cephalosporin with poor central nervous system penetration and limited activity against meningitis pathogens.
D: Cefdinir (D) is a third-generation cephalosporin but is not the preferred choice for treating bacterial meningitis due to its inferior CNS penetration compared to cefotaxime.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is essential in regulating blood pressure. Which of the following hormones involved in RAAS is produced by the kidney?
- A. Renin
- B. Angiotensin I
- C. Angiotensin II
- D. Aldosterone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Renin is produced and released by the kidney in response to low blood pressure or low sodium levels. Renin initiates the RAAS cascade by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is then converted to angiotensin II, leading to vasoconstriction and aldosterone release. Aldosterone, produced by the adrenal glands, promotes sodium and water retention. Therefore, choice A is correct as renin is the hormone produced by the kidney to regulate blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are downstream products of the RAAS cascade and are not directly produced by the kidney.