Nokea
The inability of the kidneys to excrete adequately to maintain homeostasis is:
- A. glomerulonephritis.
- B. polycystic kidney diseas
- D. renal failur
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: renal failure. Renal failure refers to the kidneys' inability to adequately excrete waste products and maintain electrolyte balance, leading to disruption of homeostasis. Glomerulonephritis (A) is inflammation of the glomeruli, not necessarily resulting in inadequate excretion. Polycystic kidney disease (B) is a genetic disorder causing cysts in the kidneys, but it doesn't directly relate to excretory function. Choice C is incomplete.
You may also like to solve these questions
Mrs. Miller has a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. To prevent renal damage her plan of care should include
- A. restricting fluid intake until symptoms are under control
- B. reducing protein intake
- C. understanding the necessity of continuing drug therapy indefinitely
- D. preventing viral infections
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
1. Acute pyelonephritis requires antibiotic therapy to eliminate the infection and prevent renal damage.
2. Continuing drug therapy indefinitely ensures complete eradication of the infection.
3. Stopping drug therapy prematurely can lead to recurrence and potential renal complications.
4. Understanding the necessity of drug therapy is crucial for Mrs. Miller's long-term renal health.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Restricting fluid intake can worsen the infection and hinder recovery.
B: Incorrect. Protein intake is not directly related to the treatment of acute pyelonephritis.
D: Incorrect. Preventing viral infections is not directly relevant to the treatment of acute pyelonephritis.
During a genital examination, the nurse notices that a male patient has clusters of small vesicles on the
- A. The nurse recognizes that these lesions are:
- B. Peyronie diseas
- C. Genital herpes.
- D. Genital warts.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Genital herpes presents as clusters of small vesicles on the genitals.
2. The vesicles are typically painful and can ulcerate.
3. The presence of vesicles is a key feature of genital herpes.
4. Peyronie's disease is characterized by penile curvature, not vesicles.
5. Genital warts are caused by HPV and present as cauliflower-like growths, not vesicles.
A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of pelvic pain, urinary urgency, and dysuria. The nurse suspects interstitial cystitis. Which of the following is a common symptom of interstitial cystitis?
- A. Severe abdominal cramping.
- B. Painful urination and frequent bladder infections.
- C. Frequent urination and pelvic pressure.
- D. Dysuria and urinary retention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Painful urination and frequent bladder infections. Interstitial cystitis is characterized by chronic bladder inflammation causing pain and discomfort during urination. This leads to painful urination and an increased risk of developing frequent bladder infections due to the compromised bladder lining. Severe abdominal cramping (A) is not a common symptom of interstitial cystitis. Frequent urination and pelvic pressure (C) are also common symptoms but not specific to interstitial cystitis. Dysuria and urinary retention (D) are not typically associated with interstitial cystitis.
The best time for a woman of childbearing age to perform breast self-examination is
- A. during her menstrual period
- B. 2 days before the onset of her menstrual period
- C. 1 week after her menstrual period ends
- D. the day her menstrual period begins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best time for a woman of childbearing age to perform breast self-examination is 1 week after her menstrual period ends. This is because breast tissue tends to be less tender and lumpy during this time, making it easier to detect any abnormalities. Performing the examination at this time allows for a more accurate assessment of the breasts. Additionally, hormonal changes during the menstrual cycle can affect breast tissue, so performing the examination post-menstruation reduces the likelihood of false alarms. Choices A, B, and D are not ideal times as breast tenderness and hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual period can make it challenging to accurately detect abnormalities.
The dartos muscle is responsible for:
- A. Temperature regulation.
- B. herni
- D. Wrinkled appearance of scrotum.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Wrinkled appearance of scrotum. The dartos muscle is a smooth muscle in the scrotum that contracts and causes the wrinkled appearance of the scrotum. This contraction helps regulate the temperature of the testes by moving them closer to or further away from the body for optimal sperm production. Choice A is incorrect because temperature regulation is primarily controlled by the cremaster muscle. Choice B is incorrect as hernia is not a function of the dartos muscle. Choice C is an incomplete choice and does not relate to the function of the dartos muscle.