Genitourinary System Assessment

Genitourinary System Assessment Related

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When performing a genital examination on a 25-year-old man, the nurse notices deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles. On the basis of this information, the nurse would:

  • A. Squeeze the glans to check for the presence of discharg
  • C. Consider this finding as normal, and proceed with the examination.
  • D. Assess the testicles for the presence of masses or painless lumps.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because the description of deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles in a 25-year-old man is indicative of normal changes associated with development and aging. The nurse should recognize this as a normal finding and proceed with the examination without any further intervention.

Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Squeezing the glans to check for discharge is not indicated based on the information provided. This action is unnecessary and could potentially cause discomfort or harm to the patient.
D: Assessing the testicles for masses or painless lumps is not relevant to the described findings of pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with sebaceous follicles. This choice does not align with the presented information and would not be appropriate in this scenario.

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If necessary, your physician can increase your dose up to 40 mg per day.

  • A. TRUE
  • B. FALSE
  • C. Maybe
  • D. Not mentioned
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: The statement indicates the possibility of increasing the dose up to 40 mg, implying that it is within the physician's discretion.
Step 2: The use of the word "can" suggests the potential for the physician to make such an adjustment.
Step 3: The phrase "if necessary" implies that the dose adjustment will be based on the individual's specific needs.
Step 4: Therefore, it is true that the physician has the authority to increase the dose up to 40 mg per day based on the patient's condition and requirements.

A 20 year old patient presented to the ER with headache, stiff neck and fever for 3 days and is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Which one of the following antibiotics is the best choice to treat meningitis?

  • A. Cefuroxime
  • B. Cephalexin
  • C. Cefotaxime
  • D. Cefdinir
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cefotaxime (C) because it is a third-generation cephalosporin with excellent penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid, making it effective against bacterial meningitis pathogens. Cefotaxime covers a broad spectrum of bacteria commonly causing meningitis, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis.

A: Cefuroxime (A) is not the best choice as it has limited activity against some of the common pathogens causing meningitis.
B: Cephalexin (B) is a first-generation cephalosporin with poor central nervous system penetration and limited activity against meningitis pathogens.
D: Cefdinir (D) is a third-generation cephalosporin but is not the preferred choice for treating bacterial meningitis due to its inferior CNS penetration compared to cefotaxime.

A 22-year-old woman has been considering using oral contraceptives. As a part of her health history, the nurse should ask:

  • A. Do you have a history of heart murmurs?
  • B. Will you be in a monogamous relationship?
  • C. Have you carefully thought this choice through?
  • D. If you smoke, how many cigarettes do you smoke per day?
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because smoking increases the risk of cardiovascular complications with oral contraceptives. By asking about the number of cigarettes smoked per day, the nurse can assess the level of risk. Choice A is incorrect as it is not directly related to the safety of oral contraceptives. Choice B is important for overall sexual health but not directly related to the safety of oral contraceptives. Choice C is vague and does not provide specific information about potential risks associated with oral contraceptives.

The process by which water is reabsorbed by following solutes when they are reabsorbed is called

  • A. obligatory water reabsorption
  • B. facultative water reabsorption
  • C. osmotic water reabsorption
  • D. renin-angiotensin water reabsorption
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: facultative water reabsorption. This process occurs in the collecting ducts of the nephron in the kidney, where water reabsorption is regulated based on the body's hydration levels. When solutes like sodium are reabsorbed, water follows passively through aquaporin channels, adjusting the amount of water reabsorbed according to the body's needs.

A: Obligatory water reabsorption refers to the constant reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle, not regulated based on hydration levels.

C: Osmotic water reabsorption is a general term referring to the movement of water based on osmotic gradients, not specifically regulated by solute reabsorption.

D: Renin-angiotensin water reabsorption involves the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in response to low blood pressure, focusing on sodium reabsorption rather than direct regulation of

Intravenous Plain NSS infusion is the treatment of choice for the following * complications of furosemide therapy:

  • A. Hypokalemia
  • B. Severe dehydration
  • C. Dilutional hyponatremia
  • D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Intravenous Plain NSS infusion is the treatment of choice for dilutional hyponatremia, which can occur as a complication of furosemide therapy due to excessive diuresis leading to low sodium levels. This solution helps restore normal sodium levels without affecting the fluid balance.

Summary:
A: Hypokalemia - Furosemide therapy can cause hypokalemia, which is usually treated with potassium supplements, not NSS infusion.
B: Severe dehydration - NSS infusion may be used for severe dehydration but is not specific to furosemide therapy complications.
D: None of the above - Incorrect, as C is the correct answer for dilutional hyponatremia.

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