Nokea
The following tetracycline has the potential to cause vestibular toxicity:
- A. Doxycycline
- B. Oxytetracycline
- C. Minocycline
- D. Demeclocycline
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Minocycline is known to cause vestibular toxicity due to its lipophilicity and ability to accumulate in inner ear structures.
2. Vestibular toxicity can manifest as dizziness, vertigo, and imbalance.
3. Doxycycline, oxytetracycline, and demeclocycline are less likely to cause vestibular toxicity.
4. Doxycycline is commonly used and well-tolerated, oxytetracycline has a different side effect profile, and demeclocycline is primarily associated with nephrotoxicity.
Summary:
Choice C (Minocycline) is correct due to its propensity for causing vestibular toxicity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are less likely to cause this specific adverse effect.
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Which of the following antifungal agent act as fungicidal by inhibiting the * synthesis of β1,3 glucan used for the disseminated mucocutaneous Candida infections?
- A. Caspofungin
- B. Amphoterecin B
- C. Flucytosine
- D. Ketoconazole resistance rapidly?:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
Caspofungin is a echinocandin antifungal that inhibits the synthesis of β1,3 glucan in the fungal cell wall, leading to cell death. This mechanism makes it fungicidal against Candida infections. Amphotericin B disrupts fungal cell membranes, while Flucytosine interferes with DNA/RNA synthesis. Ketoconazole inhibits ergosterol synthesis. Therefore, A is correct as it targets the specific mechanism for Candida infections.
The inability of the kidneys to excrete adequately to maintain homeostasis is:
- A. glomerulonephritis.
- B. polycystic kidney diseas
- D. renal failur
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: renal failure. Renal failure refers to the kidneys' inability to adequately excrete waste products and maintain electrolyte balance, leading to disruption of homeostasis. Glomerulonephritis (A) is inflammation of the glomeruli, not necessarily resulting in inadequate excretion. Polycystic kidney disease (B) is a genetic disorder causing cysts in the kidneys, but it doesn't directly relate to excretory function. Choice C is incomplete.
The examiner is going to inspect and palpate for a hernia. During this exam, the man is instructed to:
- A. Hold his breath during palpation.
- B. Cough after the examiner has gently inserted the exam finger into the rectum.
- C. Bear down when the examiner’s finger is at the inguinal canal.
- D. Relax in a supine position while the exam finger is inserted into the canal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bear down when the examiner's finger is at the inguinal canal. This action increases intra-abdominal pressure, which helps to push out any potential hernia through the inguinal canal for easier detection. Holding his breath (A) would not facilitate hernia detection. Coughing after insertion (B) is used for rectal exams, not hernia assessment. Relaxing in a supine position (D) is not helpful for hernia examination as it does not aid in hernia protrusion.
The nurse is assessing a patient admitted with renal
- A. Provide privacy for the patient. stones. During the admission assessment, what parameters would be priorities for the nurse to address?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing the patient's renal function parameters such as serum creatinine, blood urea nitrogen, and urine output are essential in determining the status of the kidneys. These parameters help the nurse evaluate renal function, assess for renal impairment, and monitor for any complications related to renal stones. Option A is incorrect as providing privacy is important but not a priority in this situation. Option C and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific parameters related to renal function assessment.
One of your patients is awaiting laboratory results for kidney function. The patient has recently recovered from a streptococcal throat infection. The patient has most likely developed symptoms of:
- A. Pyelonephritis.
- B. Nephrolithiasis.
- C. Chronic renal failure.
- D. Glomerulonephritis.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glomerulonephritis. Streptococcal infection can lead to poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), an immune-mediated inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. This results in hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, and edema. Pyelonephritis (choice A) is a bacterial infection of the kidneys, not related to streptococcal infection. Nephrolithiasis (choice B) is the formation of kidney stones, which is not directly linked to streptococcal infection. Chronic renal failure (choice C) is a long-term decline in kidney function, not typically caused by streptococcal infection.