Nokea
A 62-year-old man states that his physician told him that he has an “inguinal hernia.†He asks the nurse to explain what a hernia is. The nurse should:
- A. Tell him not to worry and that most men his age develop hernias.
- B. Explain that a hernia is often the result of prenatal growth abnormalities.
- C. Refer him to his physician for additional consultation because the physician made the initial diagnosis.
- D. Explain that a hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Define hernia as a condition where an organ or fatty tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the surrounding muscle or connective tissue.
Step 2: Emphasize the relevance to the patient's situation.
Step 3: Clarify that an inguinal hernia specifically involves the intestines protruding through the inguinal canal in the groin area.
Step 4: Explain that surgery may be needed to repair the hernia.
Step 5: Stress the importance of seeking medical attention for proper evaluation and treatment.
Summary:
A: Incorrect - Dismissing the patient's concerns is not appropriate.
B: Incorrect - Hernias are not typically related to prenatal growth abnormalities.
C: Incorrect - The nurse can provide basic information about hernias without needing the physician to explain further.
You may also like to solve these questions
The process by which water is reabsorbed by following solutes when they are reabsorbed is called
- A. obligatory water reabsorption
- B. facultative water reabsorption
- C. osmotic water reabsorption
- D. renin-angiotensin water reabsorption
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: facultative water reabsorption. This process occurs in the collecting ducts of the nephron in the kidney, where water reabsorption is regulated based on the body's hydration levels. When solutes like sodium are reabsorbed, water follows passively through aquaporin channels, adjusting the amount of water reabsorbed according to the body's needs.
A: Obligatory water reabsorption refers to the constant reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle, not regulated based on hydration levels.
C: Osmotic water reabsorption is a general term referring to the movement of water based on osmotic gradients, not specifically regulated by solute reabsorption.
D: Renin-angiotensin water reabsorption involves the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in response to low blood pressure, focusing on sodium reabsorption rather than direct regulation of
The dartos muscle is responsible for:
- A. Temperature regulation.
- B. herni
- D. Wrinkled appearance of scrotum.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Wrinkled appearance of scrotum. The dartos muscle is a smooth muscle in the scrotum that contracts and causes the wrinkled appearance of the scrotum. This contraction helps regulate the temperature of the testes by moving them closer to or further away from the body for optimal sperm production. Choice A is incorrect because temperature regulation is primarily controlled by the cremaster muscle. Choice B is incorrect as hernia is not a function of the dartos muscle. Choice C is an incomplete choice and does not relate to the function of the dartos muscle.
A patient has experienced excessive losses of the kidneys
- A. The left kidneys connection to the common bile duct
- B. How will this lost bicarbonate be replaced?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because excessive losses of the kidneys can lead to metabolic acidosis due to bicarbonate loss. Bicarbonate is essential for maintaining acid-base balance in the body. Replacement of lost bicarbonate is crucial to prevent acidosis. Choice A is incorrect as the kidneys are not connected to the common bile duct. Choices C and D are not applicable to the scenario provided.
A 75 year old man is suffering from benign prostatic hypertrophy and is being treated with terazosin. Which of the following adverse reaction would be expected taking this drug?
- A. Erectile dysfunction
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. GI distress
- D. Gynecomastia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Orthostatic hypotension. Terazosin is an alpha-1 blocker commonly used to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy. It works by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation can lead to vasodilation and subsequently cause a drop in blood pressure. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse reaction of alpha-1 blockers due to this mechanism. The other choices, A: Erectile dysfunction, C: GI distress, and D: Gynecomastia are not typically associated with terazosin use. Erectile dysfunction can actually be improved with alpha-1 blockers as they relax smooth muscle in the prostate, allowing for easier urination and potentially improved sexual function. GI distress and gynecomastia are not common side effects of terazosin.
An outbreak of influenza A has just been reported in his community and a 45 year old man is exhibiting initial symptoms of influenza A. Which agent would be the most useful to treat him?
- A. Cidofovir
- B. Famciclovir
- C. Amantadine
- D. Ribavirin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amantadine. Amantadine is an antiviral medication that is specifically effective against influenza A virus. It works by blocking the viral ion channel, preventing the virus from entering the host cell. This inhibits viral replication and helps reduce the severity and duration of symptoms.
Choice A, Cidofovir, is used to treat certain DNA viruses but is not effective against influenza A. Choice B, Famciclovir, is used to treat herpes viruses, not influenza A. Choice D, Ribavirin, is an antiviral medication used for respiratory syncytial virus and hepatitis C, but not as effective against influenza A. Therefore, the most appropriate choice in this scenario is Amantadine due to its specific activity against influenza A virus.