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During a genital examination, the nurse notices that a male patient has clusters of small vesicles on the
- A. The nurse recognizes that these lesions are:
- B. Peyronie diseas
- C. Genital herpes.
- D. Genital warts.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Genital herpes presents as clusters of small vesicles on the genitals.
2. The vesicles are typically painful and can ulcerate.
3. The presence of vesicles is a key feature of genital herpes.
4. Peyronie's disease is characterized by penile curvature, not vesicles.
5. Genital warts are caused by HPV and present as cauliflower-like growths, not vesicles.
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A 22-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of severe menstrual cramps. The nurse suspects dysmenorrhea. Which of the following is the most likely cause of dysmenorrhea?
- A. Uterine contractions.
- B. Endometriosis.
- C. Ovarian cysts.
- D. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ovarian cysts. Ovarian cysts can cause dysmenorrhea by disrupting the normal menstrual cycle and causing pain. Endometriosis (B) is another common cause of dysmenorrhea, but it involves the abnormal growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. Uterine contractions (A) are a normal part of menstruation and may cause cramping but are not the primary cause of dysmenorrhea. PCOS (D) is a hormonal disorder that can cause irregular periods and pain, but it is not the most likely cause of dysmenorrhea in this case.
A 62-year-old man states that his physician told him that he has an “inguinal hernia.†He asks the nurse to explain what a hernia is. The nurse should:
- A. Tell him not to worry and that most men his age develop hernias.
- B. Explain that a hernia is often the result of prenatal growth abnormalities.
- C. Refer him to his physician for additional consultation because the physician made the initial diagnosis.
- D. Explain that a hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Define hernia as a condition where an organ or fatty tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the surrounding muscle or connective tissue.
Step 2: Emphasize the relevance to the patient's situation.
Step 3: Clarify that an inguinal hernia specifically involves the intestines protruding through the inguinal canal in the groin area.
Step 4: Explain that surgery may be needed to repair the hernia.
Step 5: Stress the importance of seeking medical attention for proper evaluation and treatment.
Summary:
A: Incorrect - Dismissing the patient's concerns is not appropriate.
B: Incorrect - Hernias are not typically related to prenatal growth abnormalities.
C: Incorrect - The nurse can provide basic information about hernias without needing the physician to explain further.
The patient with chronic kidney disease is considering whether to use peritoneal dialysis (PD) or hemodialysis (HD). What are advantages of PD when compared to HD (select all that apply)?
- A. Less protein loss
- B. Rapid fluid removal
- C. Less cardiovascular stress
- D. Decreased hyperlipidemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Less protein loss. Peritoneal dialysis (PD) occurs continuously, allowing for a slower and gentler removal of waste products, leading to less protein loss compared to the intermittent nature of hemodialysis (HD). This is because PD uses the peritoneal membrane as a filter, which is more gentle on proteins.
Rapid fluid removal (B) is actually an advantage of HD, as it can quickly remove excess fluids. Less cardiovascular stress (C) is not a specific advantage of PD over HD, as both types of dialysis can impact cardiovascular health. Decreased hyperlipidemia (D) is not a direct advantage of PD over HD.
A 22-year-old woman has been considering using oral contraceptives. As a part of her health history, the nurse should ask:
- A. Do you have a history of heart murmurs?
- B. Will you be in a monogamous relationship?
- C. Have you carefully thought this choice through?
- D. If you smoke, how many cigarettes do you smoke per day?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because smoking increases the risk of cardiovascular complications with oral contraceptives. By asking about the number of cigarettes smoked per day, the nurse can assess the level of risk. Choice A is incorrect as it is not directly related to the safety of oral contraceptives. Choice B is important for overall sexual health but not directly related to the safety of oral contraceptives. Choice C is vague and does not provide specific information about potential risks associated with oral contraceptives.
The nurse has implemented a bladder retraining
- A. Risk for deficient fluid volume related to urinary program for an older adult patient. The nurse places the diversion patient on a timed voiding schedule and performs an
- B. Risk for autonomic dysreflexia related to disruption of ultrasonic bladder scan after each voi
- C. The nurse notes the sacral plexus that the patient typically has approximately 50 mL of urine remaining in her bladder after voiding. What would
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bladder retraining aims to improve urinary control and prevent incontinence in older adults. Implementing a timed voiding schedule helps the patient regain control over their bladder function and reduces the risk of urinary issues. Option B is incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia is not typically associated with bladder retraining. Option C is incorrect as it describes a normal bladder residual volume, which does not directly relate to bladder retraining. Option D is incomplete.