In the preoperative assessment of a patient for the likelihood of postoperative risk, ascorbic acid deficiency, anemia, and volume contraction are all risk factors for
- A. Prolonged intubation
- B. Thromboembolism
- C. Delayed wound healing
- D. Atelectasis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D: Atelectasis):
1. Ascorbic acid deficiency can lead to impaired collagen synthesis, affecting lung tissue integrity.
2. Anemia reduces oxygen-carrying capacity, increasing the risk of lung collapse.
3. Volume contraction can lead to decreased lung compliance, predisposing to atelectasis.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Prolonged intubation is more related to airway issues, not specifically affected by the mentioned risk factors.
B: Thromboembolism is more linked to blood clotting issues rather than the mentioned risk factors.
C: Delayed wound healing is more influenced by nutritional deficiencies and blood flow, not directly linked to lung complications like atelectasis.
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What role does the placenta play in managing fetal waste products?
- A. Filters toxins
- B. Facilitates nutrient absorption
- C. Removes carbon dioxide
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the placenta performs multiple functions in managing fetal waste products. It filters toxins, facilitates nutrient absorption, and removes carbon dioxide. The placenta acts as a barrier between the mother and the fetus, allowing for the exchange of nutrients and waste products. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct in describing the role of the placenta in managing fetal waste products. The other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the functions that the placenta serves in this context.
Effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system include
- A. Development of infarcts and placental abruption
- B. Lowered vaginal discharge pH and haemorrhage
- C. Congestive cardiac failure and fetal hypoxia
- D. Poor placental anchorage and severe infarction
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because preeclampsia can lead to poor placental anchorage, which results in reduced blood flow to the placenta, leading to severe infarction. This can cause adverse effects on the fetus and the mother. Choice A is incorrect because infarcts and placental abruption are not specific effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system. Choice B is incorrect because lowered vaginal discharge pH and hemorrhage are not typical effects of preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect because congestive cardiac failure and fetal hypoxia are not direct effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system.
Precipitate labor is an unusually rapid labor
- A. Where the external cervical os fails to dilate despite good uterine contractions
- B. That is concluded in more than three hours
- C. That is concluded in less than three hours
- D. Where the external cervical os fails to dilate due to poor uterine contractions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because precipitate labor is defined as labor that is concluded in less than three hours. This rapid progression can lead to complications such as increased risk of tearing and fetal distress. Choice A is incorrect because it describes a different condition where the cervix fails to dilate despite good contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the definition of precipitate labor. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a scenario where the cervix fails to dilate due to poor uterine contractions, which is not characteristic of precipitate labor. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer based on the definition and characteristics of precipitate labor.
The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include
- A. Observation
- B. Hyperextension casting
- C. Jewett brace
- D. Surgical intervention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Observation. As an AGACNP, observation is crucial for monitoring the progression of the condition before considering any invasive treatments. Hyperextension casting (B) and Jewett brace (C) are more specific interventions for spinal conditions and not typically indicated for this scenario. Surgical intervention (D) is typically considered only if conservative treatments fail, making it a last resort option. Therefore, observation allows for a conservative approach to assess the patient's response to initial management before considering more aggressive interventions.
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who reportedly fell down a flight of steps. Her history is significant for several emergency room visits, but she denies any significant medical conditions. Some documentation in her chart indicates that she may have been subjected to physical abuse. Today she presents with a periorbital ecchymosis of the left eye and swelling in the left side of the face. Her neurologic examination is within normal limits. Which head imaging study would be most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse?
- A. Radiographs
- B. CT scan without contrast
- C. MRI
- D. PET scan
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Radiographs. Radiographs, specifically skull X-rays, are most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this case. Radiographs can detect fractures, such as skull fractures or facial bone fractures, which are common in cases of physical abuse. These fractures may not always be clinically evident but can be identified on X-rays.
Explanation of other choices:
B: CT scan without contrast - While a CT scan can provide detailed imaging of the head, it may not be necessary in this case as the patient's neurologic examination is within normal limits. Also, radiographs are more cost-effective and can detect fractures effectively.
C: MRI - MRI is not typically used as the first-line imaging modality for suspected head trauma due to its cost and time-consuming nature. Radiographs are more appropriate for initial evaluation.
D: PET scan - PET scans are used to detect metabolic activity in tissues and are not typically indicated for assessing acute traumatic injuries like fractures associated with
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