In the UK, orthognathic surgery is likely to:
- A. Be undertaken in specialist craniofacial surgery units rather than in maxillofacial surgery units.
- B. Be associated with a high incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting.
- C. Require a nasal rather than an oral tracheal tube when a Le Fort I osteotomy is performed.
- D. Require admission of the patient to a high-dependency unit.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Orthognathic surgery corrects jaw deformities in the UK, typically by maxillofacial surgeons, not solely craniofacial units (reserved for complex congenital cases). Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) are common due to blood swallowing, prolonged surgery, and opioids risk factors per Apfel criteria. Le Fort I osteotomy (maxillary) often uses oral intubation; nasal tubes suit mandibular focus or surgeon preference, not a requirement. High-dependency unit (HDU) admission isn't routine most recover in general wards unless complications (e.g., airway) arise. Cleft palate repair precedes, not follows, orthognathic work. PONV's prevalence reflects surgical and anaesthetic challenges, necessitating robust antiemetic prophylaxis.
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The nurse is arriving at the beginning of her shift and has taken report on four clients on a medical surgical unit. Which client should the nurse see first?
- A. A Client with pyelonephritis with nausea and vomiting
- B. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with an oxygen saturation of $90 \%$ on room air
- C. A client post vaginoplasty with bright red blood and clots in her catheter
- D. A client post-total abdominal hysterectomy with 9/10 pain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bright red blood and clots post-vaginoplasty scream hemorrhage ABCs prioritize circulation, needing instant check for shock or transfusion. Pyelonephritis nags, COPD's stable at 90\%, pain's urgent but not bleeding. Nurses hit bleeding first, a life-line call in this post-op rush.
The BMI that does NOT INCREASE the risk of renal disease and CKD is X. What is X?
- A. 25 or more
- B. 30 or more
- C. 35 or more
- D. 40 or more
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Body Mass Index (BMI) correlates with chronic kidney disease (CKD) risk, with higher values linked to increased incidence due to obesity-related glomerular hypertension and inflammation. A BMI of 25 or more defines overweight and obesity, elevating CKD risk, though 18.5-24.9 is the range typically not increasing risk. The question's phrasing implies the threshold where risk begins, making 25 or more the level where renal disease risk rises, per studies like the Framingham Heart Study. Higher BMIs (30+, 35+, 40+) progressively worsen risk, with 30 marking obesity. Thus, 25 or more is the correct cutoff, guiding family physicians in counseling patients on weight management to prevent CKD onset.
A nurse is caring for a client who presented to the emergency department with complaints of fatigue, palpitations, and chest pains. Upon assessment, the provider notes an S3 and S4 gallop, weak peripheral pulses, and tachycardia. The provider orders a chest x-ray and echocardiogram, which reveals left ventricular dilation. Which of the following disorder is consistent with these findings?
- A. Cardiac tamponade
- B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- C. Pericarditis
- D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Left ventricular dilation with S3, S4, weak pulses, and tachycardia paints dilated cardiomyopathy heart muscle stretches, weakening pump, causing fatigue and palpitations. Tamponade compresses, not dilates. Pericarditis inflames without dilation. Restrictive stiffens, resisting stretch. Nurses tie this to DCM's systolic flop, anticipating meds like ACE inhibitors, a fit for this stretched-out heart.
What is the average life expectancy in Canada?
- A. 60 years
- B. 70 years
- C. 80 years
- D. 90 years
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Canada's life clock hits 80 78.5 for men, 82.7 for women in 2010 a longevity nurses bank on for chronic care spans. Lower guesses lag history; 90's a stretch. It shapes health goals, a timeline framing illness fights.
A 60 year old lady presents with a skin tear to her left shin on her coffee table. She is unsure of her previous immunization status. How should this be managed?
- A. ADT only
- B. ADT plus immunoglobulin
- C. Immunoglobulin only
- D. Neither
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Skin tear, unknown shots ADT boosts, no Ig needed for clean cuts, antibiotics if dirty. Nurses jab this chronic tetanus shield solo.