Nokea
In which structure do sperm mature after they are produced?
- A. the prostate gland
- B. the epididymis
- C. the bulbourethral glands
- D. the seminal vesicles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The epididymis is the correct answer because it is the coiled tube where sperm mature and gain motility after being produced in the testes. This maturation process is essential for sperm to become capable of fertilizing an egg. The epididymis also stores sperm until they are ejaculated during sexual activity.
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The elevated ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are known as ______ while the shallow grooves are termed ______.
- A. sulci; gyri
- B. gyri; sulci
- C. ganglia; gyri
- D. tracts; ganglia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The elevated ridges on the cerebral hemispheres are called gyri, and the shallow grooves are called sulci. Ganglia, tracts, receptors, and effectors are unrelated to these structures. Thus, B is the correct answer.
The nurse is explaining the neurological system to a group of nursing students. How many pairs of spinal nerves should the nurse explain are contained within the human body?
- A. 15
- B. 25
- C. 31
- D. 42
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves in the human body: 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 1 coccygeal. Understanding the anatomy of the spinal nerves is essential for explaining neurological function.
The right hand of a client with multiple sclerosis trembles severely whenever she attempts a voluntary action. She spills her coffee twice at lunch and cannot get her dress fastened securely. Which is the best legal documentation in nurses' notes of the chart for this client assessment?
- A. Has an intention tremor of the right hand.
- B. Right-hand tremor worsens with purposeful acts.
- C. Needs assistance with dressing and eating due to severe trembling and clumsiness.
- D. Slight shaking of right hand increases to severe tremor when client tries to button her clothes or drink from a cup.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Documenting the specific circumstances under which the tremor worsens provides a clear and accurate description of the client's condition.
A person comes to the clinic reporting, I wear a scarf across my lower face when I go out but because of my ugly appearance. Assessment reveals an average appearance with no actual disfigurement. Which problem is most likely?
- A. Dissociative identity disorder
- B. Body dysmorphic disorder
- C. Pseudocyesis
- D. Malingering
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Body dysmorphic disorder. This individual's distorted belief about their appearance despite no actual disfigurement aligns with the symptoms of body dysmorphic disorder. People with this disorder obsess over perceived flaws in their appearance.
Incorrect choices:
A: Dissociative identity disorder involves multiple distinct personality states, not related to body image.
C: Pseudocyesis is a false belief of being pregnant, unrelated to body image.
D: Malingering involves feigning symptoms for external gain, not related to distorted body image perceptions.
When comparing a CVA and TIA, the nurse knows this is unique about TIAs:
- A. TIAs have permanent long-term focal deficits
- B. TIAs are intermittent with spontaneous resolution of the neurologic deficit
- C. TIAs are intermittent with permanent motor and sensory deficits
- D. TIAs have permanent long-term neurologic deficits
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) are characterized by temporary neurological deficits that resolve spontaneously within 24 hours. Unlike strokes, TIAs do not cause permanent damage but are warning signs of an increased risk for future strokes. Immediate evaluation and intervention are necessary to prevent a full-blown stroke.