JR is admitted to the medical-surgical unit because of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome. What is the hallmark of this syndrome?
- A. osmotic dieresis
- B. hypolipidemia
- C. edema
- D. hyperproteinemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nephritic syndrome is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys, leading to proteinuria, hematuria, and decreased kidney function. The hallmark symptom of nephritic syndrome is edema, which occurs due to the loss of proteins in the urine as a result of damaged glomeruli. The loss of proteins leads to a decrease in colloid osmotic pressure, causing fluid to leak out from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues, resulting in edema. Osmotic diuresis, hypolipidemia, and hyperproteinemia are not typically associated with nephritic syndrome.
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While planning for proportionate distribution of restricted fluid volumes, what is the reason for a nurse to ensure that the client is actively involved during the development of the plan?
- A. It promotes the clients compliance with therapy
- B. It minimizes the chances of adverse effects
- C. It promotes a strict food and fluid intake habit
- D. It raises the self esteem of the client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: It is essential for a nurse to ensure that the client is actively involved in the development of the plan for proportionate distribution of restricted fluid volumes because it promotes the client's compliance with therapy. When the client participates in creating the plan, they are more likely to understand the importance of following it and be motivated to adhere to the recommended fluid restrictions. This active involvement fosters a sense of ownership and responsibility, leading to better treatment outcomes and improved overall health.
Spina bifida is one of the possible neural tube defects that can occur during early embryological development. Which of the following definitions most accurately describes meningocele? A.Complete exposure of spinal cord and meninges
- A. Herniation of spinal cord and meninges into a sac
- B. Sac formation containing meninges and spinal fluid
- C. B and C
- D. Spinal cord tumor containing nerve roots
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Meningocele is a type of neural tube defect in which there is herniation of the meninges (protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord) through a defect in the spinal column. This results in the formation of a sac-like protrusion that contains the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid but does not involve the spinal cord itself. In meningocele, the spinal cord remains in its normal position within the spinal canal. This condition is typically associated with spina bifida, a neural tube defect that occurs during early embryological development. Unlike myelomeningocele, which involves both the spinal cord and meninges protruding through the spinal column, meningocele specifically refers to the presence of a sac containing the meninges and spinal fluid without direct involvement of the spinal cord.
Alice is rushed to the emergency department during an acute, severe prolonged asthma attack and is unresponsive to usual treatment. The condition is referred to as which of the following?
- A. Status asthmaticus
- B. Reactive airway disease
- C. Intrinsic asthma
- D. Extrinsic asthma 49
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Status asthmaticus is a severe and persistent asthma attack that does not respond to standard treatments like inhalers or nebulizers. It is a life-threatening condition that can lead to respiratory failure if not treated promptly. Patients with status asthmaticus may require IV medications, oxygen therapy, and possibly mechanical ventilation to support their breathing. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications and potential death.
Persons with up to 70% prevalence of peculiar facial anatomy are considered risk factors for obstructive sleep apnea EXCEPT
- A. hypotonia
- B. developmental delay
- C. central adiposity
- D. hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypothyroidism is not a typical risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea.
The majority of lumbar disc herniations occur at the level of:
- A. L1 - L2
- B. L4-L5
- C. L3-L4
- D. S1-S2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The majority of lumbar disc herniations occur at the level of L4-L5. This is because the L4-L5 disc segment bears the highest amount of stress and load in the lumbar spine due to its location and mechanics. The intervertebral disc between the fourth (L4) and fifth (L5) lumbar vertebrae is subject to repetitive movements and mechanical stress, making it more susceptible to herniation compared to other levels in the lumbar spine. Additionally, the anatomy of the L4-L5 disc makes it more prone to degeneration and herniation, leading to a higher prevalence of herniated discs at this level.