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JR is admitted to the medical-surgical unit because of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome. What is the hallmark of this syndrome?
- A. osmotic dieresis
- B. hypolipidemia
- C. edema
- D. hyperproteinemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The hallmark of nephritic syndrome is edema due to proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia. Protein loss in urine causes decreased colloid osmotic pressure, leading to fluid leaking into tissues, causing edema. Osmotic diuresis (A) is unrelated to nephritic syndrome. Hypolipidemia (B) and hyperproteinemia (D) are not characteristic of nephritic syndrome.
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At a public health fair, a nurse discusses the dangers of sun exposure. Prolonged sun exposure has been blamed for which form of cancer?
- A. Malignant melanoma
- B. Basal cell epithelioma
- C. Squamous cell carcinoma
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Malignant melanoma, basal cell epithelioma, and squamous cell carcinoma are all types of skin cancer associated with prolonged sun exposure. Melanoma is the most dangerous form, while basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas are more common but less aggressive. Sun exposure can lead to DNA damage in skin cells, increasing the risk of developing these types of cancers. Therefore, all three choices are correct as they are all linked to sun exposure. The other choices are incorrect because each type of skin cancer mentioned can be caused by prolonged sun exposure, so selecting any one of them individually would not fully capture the scope of the risks associated with sun exposure.
To return a patient with hyponatremia to normal sodium levels, it is safer to restrict fluid intake than to administer sodium:
- A. In patients who are unconscious
- B. In patients who show neurologic
- C. To prevent fluid overload symptoms
- D. To prevent dehydration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Hyponatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized by low sodium levels in the blood.
Step 2: Restricting fluid intake helps prevent further dilution of sodium in the blood, aiding in correcting hyponatremia.
Step 3: Administering sodium can lead to rapid correction, risking osmotic demyelination syndrome.
Step 4: Choice C is correct as it aligns with the goal of managing hyponatremia by preventing fluid overload symptoms.
Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary concern of correcting low sodium levels in hyponatremia.
A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse do next?
- A. Begin with introductions.
- B. Ask about the chief concerns or problems.
- C. Explain that the interview will be over in a few minutes.
- D. Tell the patient “I will be back to administer medications in 1 hour.”
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems.
Rationale:
1. Asking about chief concerns helps to focus the interview on the patient's needs.
2. It demonstrates active listening and empathy.
3. Allows the nurse to prioritize issues and provide appropriate care.
4. Introductions are already done, and ending the interview abruptly or mentioning medication timing is not patient-centered.
A client seeks medical evaluation for fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-lb weight loss in 6 weeks. To confirm that the client has been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse expects the physician to order:
- A. E-rosette immunofluorescence
- B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
- C. Quantification of T-lymphocytes (ELISA)
- D. Western blot test with ELISA
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the Western blot test with ELISA. First, ELISA is used as a screening test for HIV antibodies. If positive, a confirmatory test like Western blot is needed to detect specific antibodies. Western blot is highly specific and confirms the presence of HIV antibodies. E-rosette immunofluorescence is not typically used for HIV diagnosis. Quantification of T-lymphocytes is used to monitor disease progression in HIV but does not confirm HIV infection. ELISA alone is not confirmatory; it needs to be followed by a more specific test like Western blot.
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
- A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
- B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
- C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50
- D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50.
2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland.
3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment.
4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer.
5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer.
6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.