Nokea
Many people with obesity have a lower insulin-stimulated glucose uptake compared with people without increased body weight. It is assumed that several factors play a role in the development of insulin resistance. Question: Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to play a role in the development of insulin resistance?
- A. Reduced insulin levels
- B. Increased adipokine levels
- C. Increased triglyceride levels
- D. Low-grade continuous inflammation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Insulin resistance brews from fat's adipokines, triglycerides, inflammation not low insulin, that's type 1's game. Obesity's chronic jam needs excess, not lack nurses flag this misfit.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following client statements reflect an outcome expectancy statement?
- A. I am not able to exercise
- B. Exercise helps people lose weight
- C. Exercise is too hard on my arthritis
- D. Dietary restrictions work better than exercise to lose weight
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Outcome expectancy ties behavior to results exercise shedding pounds nails it, a belief nurses tap for motivation. Can't-do's, pain gripes, or diet bets miss that link, just vent or compare. It's a chronic nudge, faith in action's payoff.
In Home BP monitoring, which of the following readings show a normal night-time BP?
- A. 120/70 mmHg
- B. 135/85 mmHg
- C. 130/80 mmHg
- D. 125/75 mmHg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Home night BP 120/70 fits normal, not 130+ creepers. Nurses clock this chronic sleep dip.
Which of the following is the surgical treatment of choice for end-stage heart failure?
- A. Cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT)
- B. Percutaneous angiogram
- C. Genetic counseling
- D. Ventricular assist devices (VADs)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: End-stage heart failure, when drugs and pacing fail, leans on ventricular assist devices mechanical pumps aiding circulation, a bridge to transplant or destination therapy. CRT syncs ventricles, less invasive, but VADs tackle severe pump collapse. Angiograms diagnose, not treat; genetic counseling's irrelevant. Nurses prep for VADs, managing post-op risks, the go-to surgical fix in this terminal cardiac scenario.
Which of the following appropriately describes diastolic dysfunction?
- A. The rate of filling of the ventricles during diastole is slowed
- B. The left ventricle is dilated
- C. The preload (end ventricular diastolic volume) is increased
- D. The left ventricular ejection fraction is decreased
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diastolic dysfunction stiffens ventricles slowed filling in diastole nails it, as relaxation flops, hiking pressure. Dilated LV or high preload fits systolic; low EF's not here preserved in HFpEF. Dyssynchrony's another beast. Clinicians peg this slow fill, a chronic heart kink distinct from pump fail.
A 54-year-old has a diagnosis of breast cancer and is tearfully discussing her diagnosis with the nurse. The patient states, 'They tell me my cancer is malignant, while my coworker's breast tumor was benign. I just don't understand at all.' When preparing a response to this patient, the nurse should be cognizant of what characteristic that distinguishes malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type?
- A. Slow rate of mitosis of cancer cells
- B. Different proteins in the cell membrane
- C. Differing size of the cells
- D. Different molecular structure in the cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Malignant breast cancer cells flaunt tumor-specific antigens (e.g., CEA) on their membranes, unlike benign ones from the same tissue think of it as a wanted' sign for the immune system. Mitosis isn't slow it's fast in malignant cells. Size varies, not the defining split. Molecular structure shifts, but membrane proteins are the standout marker. Nurses use this to explain why her cancer's a threat those antigens tag it as invasive, a core oncology lesson for scared patients piecing it together.