Nokea
Menarche is the
- A. first menses
- B. permanent cessation of menses
- C. first sign of sperm production
- D. time of first ovulation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: first menses. Menarche refers to the onset of a girl's first menstrual period, signifying the beginning of her reproductive years. This event marks the maturation of the reproductive system and the ability to conceive. The other choices are incorrect because menarche does not refer to the permanent cessation of menses (choice B), the first sign of sperm production (choice C), or the time of first ovulation (choice D). Menarche specifically pertains to the first menstrual cycle in females, indicating the initiation of their menstrual and reproductive functions.
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The distal portion of the male urethra ________. that runs the length of the penis is the epididymis, ductus (vas) ________.
- A. prostatic,Membranous
- B. prostatic urethra
- C. membranous urethra
- D. epididymis, ductus (vas)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the question is referring to the male urethra, not the epididymis or vas deferens. The distal portion of the male urethra that runs the length of the penis is the membranous urethra and the spongy (penile) urethra. A and B are incorrect as they mention the prostatic urethra, which is not the distal portion that runs the length of the penis. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions the membranous urethra and does not address the full distal portion.
The gonads produce sex cells, also spermatids into sperm is known as known as ________, ________.
- A. zygotes
- B. mitosis
- C. interstitial cells
- D. spermiogenesis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: spermiogenesis. Spermiogenesis is the process where spermatids mature into sperm cells in the testes. The gonads (testes in males) produce sex cells, but zygotes are formed through fertilization, not spermiogenesis. Mitosis is a type of cell division for growth and repair, not sperm production. Interstitial cells are found in the testes but are responsible for producing testosterone, not the maturation of spermatids into sperm cells. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it specifically relates to the transformation of spermatids into sperm cells in the testes.
An 18-yr-old female patient who has been admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle crash is scheduled for chest and abdominal x-rays. Which information may alter the plans for the x-rays?
- A. Report of abdominal pain
- B. Positive result of hCG test
- C. Blood pressure of 172/88 mm Hg
- D. Temperature of 102.1°F (38.9°
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positive result of hCG test. This may indicate that the patient is pregnant, which would significantly alter the plans for the x-rays due to the potential harm to the fetus from radiation exposure.
A: Report of abdominal pain is a common symptom after a motor vehicle crash and would not directly alter the plans for x-rays.
C: Blood pressure of 172/88 mm Hg could indicate hypertension but would not directly impact the need for chest and abdominal x-rays.
D: Temperature of 102.1°F (38.9°C) could suggest an infection but would not typically change the necessity for x-rays.
How long are the typical ovarian and uterine (menstrual) cycles in a female?
- A. 7 days
- B. 14 days
- C. 28 days
- D. 40 days
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (28 days) because the typical ovarian and uterine (menstrual) cycles in a female are both around this duration. The menstrual cycle is typically 28 days, with ovulation occurring around day 14. This cycle is regulated by hormonal fluctuations and prepares the uterus for potential pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a 7-day cycle is too short for a full menstrual cycle, a 14-day cycle is typically the duration of ovulation, and a 40-day cycle is longer than the average menstrual cycle length.
Which of the following is a false description of the negative feedback loop involved in the production of testosterone?
- A. Follicl
- B. stimulating hormone (FSH) targets the testes of males.
- C. Rising levels of testosterone promote increased release of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus.
- D. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) is released by the hypothalamus; this hormone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is not directly involved in the negative feedback loop for testosterone production. The negative feedback loop for testosterone involves the hypothalamus releasing GnRH, which stimulates the pituitary gland to release luteinizing hormone (LH), which then stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone. Rising levels of testosterone inhibit the release of GnRH and LH through negative feedback to maintain hormonal balance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they accurately describe components of the negative feedback loop for testosterone production.