Methods typically used to diagnose bacterial infections of the reproductive system include:
- A. microscopic examination of discharge from infected organ and microscopic examination of urine for organisms
- B. biopsy of infected tissue and use of selective media
- C. microscopic examination of fecal sample and protein test of urine
- D. antibody agglutination test and coagulation test
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct:
1. Microscopic examination of discharge from infected organ allows direct visualization of bacteria causing the infection.
2. Microscopic examination of urine for organisms can help identify any bacteria present in the urinary tract.
3. Both methods are specific for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect as biopsy is invasive and not typically used for diagnosing bacterial infections.
- Choice C is incorrect as fecal samples and urine protein tests are not relevant for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system.
- Choice D is incorrect as antibody agglutination and coagulation tests are not primary methods for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system.
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The cell surface of pathogenic gram-negative bacteria can be covered in villi and cilia. What function do these structures have?
- A. RNA exchange between cells
- B. Inhibition of complement activity
- C. Bacterial adhesion to the surface of the host cells, conjugation
- D. Resistance to antibody opsonization
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacterial adhesion to the surface of the host cells, conjugation. Villi and cilia on the cell surface of pathogenic bacteria help in bacterial adhesion to host cells, facilitating the process of infection. Conjugation is the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells, which can be aided by these structures. The other choices are incorrect because RNA exchange between cells (A) is typically facilitated by different structures like pili, inhibition of complement activity (B) is not related to the function of villi and cilia, and resistance to antibody opsonization (D) is usually achieved through other mechanisms such as capsule formation.
A patient with a severe case of pneumonia had sputum stained using the Gram method. The smear revealed Gram-positive cocci arranged in pairs with a capsule. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Staphylococcus aureus
- C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
- D. Enterococcus faecalis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and is characterized by being Gram-positive cocci arranged in pairs with a capsule, as described in the question. The presence of a capsule is a key characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae, distinguishing it from the other choices. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is a Gram-positive cocci, but it typically forms clusters, not pairs. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a Gram-negative rod, not a Gram-positive cocci. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is a Gram-positive cocci, but it does not typically present with a capsule in the same way Streptococcus pneumoniae does.
Microscopic examination of pus sample taken from mandibular fistula canal and stained by Gram's method has revealed druses with gram-positive coloring in the center and cone-shaped structures with gram-negative coloring. Such morphology is characteristic of the agent of:
- A. Fusobacteriosis
- B. Actinomycosis
- C. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis
- D. Anaerobic infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Actinomycosis. Actinomyces is a gram-positive bacterium that forms sulfur granules (druses) with gram-positive coloring in the center and filamentous structures resembling cones with gram-negative coloring. This morphology is characteristic of Actinomyces species. Fusobacteriosis (choice A) typically presents with gram-negative rods. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis (choice C) is caused by gram-positive staphylococci, not Actinomyces. Anaerobic infections (choice D) can be caused by various bacteria, but the specific morphology described in the question matches Actinomyces, making choice B the correct answer.
In a village, a case of anthrax had been registered. Medical services began epidemiologically indicated specific prophylaxis of population against anthrax. What preparation was used for this purpose?
- A. Anatoxin
- B. Inactivated vaccine
- C. Chemical vaccine
- D. Genetically engineered vaccine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anatoxin. An anatoxin is a preparation that contains inactivated toxins produced by the anthrax-causing bacteria. By administering anatoxin, the population can develop immunity against the toxin without being exposed to the live bacteria. This specific prophylaxis approach helps prevent the development of anthrax infection by targeting the toxin itself.
Summary:
- Choice B (Inactivated vaccine) is incorrect because an inactivated vaccine typically contains killed or inactivated whole bacteria, not just the toxins.
- Choice C (Chemical vaccine) is incorrect as there is no such thing as a chemical vaccine; vaccines are biological preparations.
- Choice D (Genetically engineered vaccine) is incorrect because while vaccines can be genetically engineered, the specific term "genetically engineered vaccine" does not accurately describe the prophylaxis used against anthrax in this scenario.
Rheumatic fever is usually a complication of a(n) __________ infection.
- A. Escherichia coli
- B. Streptococcus pyogenes
- C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
- D. Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Streptococcus pyogenes is the causative agent of strep throat.
2. If untreated, strep throat can lead to rheumatic fever.
3. Rheumatic fever is an autoimmune complication of streptococcal infections.
4. E. coli, S. epidermidis, and S. aureus are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.