Most evaluations are based on absolute judgment. This is:
- A. A standard set by an external source.
- B. The manager and staff's perceived notion.
- C. Internal standards.
- D. The manager's personal opinion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Internal standards.
Rationale:
1. Internal standards refer to criteria set by an organization based on its own goals and values.
2. Absolute judgment means evaluations are made against these internal standards.
3. By using internal standards, evaluations are consistent and aligned with organizational objectives.
4. External sources (A) and manager's personal opinion (D) are subjective and may not reflect organizational goals.
5. Manager and staff's perceived notion (B) may vary and lack consistency, unlike internal standards.
Summary:
Internal standards provide a consistent and objective basis for evaluations, ensuring alignment with organizational goals. External sources, personal opinions, and perceived notions lack this consistency and alignment.
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Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?
- A. Provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician
- B. Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently
- C. Assist with administrative tasks in a healthcare setting
- D. Specialize in a specific area of nursing practice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who can diagnose and treat medical conditions independently, under the scope of their licensure. NPs have the authority to prescribe medications, order diagnostic tests, and provide primary care services. This role allows them to manage patient care autonomously, without direct supervision from a physician.
Choice A is incorrect because NPs do not provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician; they work independently. Choice C is incorrect because NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect because while NPs may specialize in specific areas of nursing practice, the defining characteristic of their role is the ability to diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.
What is the main purpose of recruitment activities?
- A. Assess an applicant's motivation
- B. Generate a pool of qualified applicants
- C. Assess an applicant's skills
- D. Assess an applicant's ability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Generate a pool of qualified applicants. The main purpose of recruitment activities is to attract and identify a diverse pool of qualified candidates for a job vacancy. By generating a pool of qualified applicants, the organization increases the chances of finding the best fit for the position. Option A, assessing motivation, is not the main purpose but can be a part of the recruitment process. Option C, assessing skills, and option D, assessing ability, are more related to the selection process rather than recruitment.
How can a staff nurse recognize they are experiencing burnout? (EXCEPT)
- A. They are spending more time talking to staff on other units.
- B. Staff is questioning their clinical judgment.
- C. They sleep longer hours, sometimes coming in late to work.
- D. They are drinking alcohol more frequently to relax.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A staff nurse experiencing burnout may isolate themselves, leading to less interaction with staff on other units. This can result in spending less time talking to staff on other units. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are common signs of burnout: staff questioning clinical judgment, increased sleep, and increased alcohol consumption.
When lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client, what action should the nurse take to prevent self-injury?
- A. Keep the feet close together.
- B. Use the back muscles for lifting.
- C. Stand close to the cabinet when lifting it.
- D. Bend at the waist.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Keep the feet close together. This helps maintain a stable base of support, improving balance and reducing the risk of injury. The wider the base of support, the more stable the body is during lifting. Keeping the feet close together also helps distribute the weight evenly and allows for better control over the movement.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Using the back muscles for lifting can lead to strain and injury. It is important to use the legs and core muscles instead.
C: Standing close to the cabinet when lifting may cause strain due to limited range of motion. It is better to maintain a comfortable distance.
D: Bending at the waist increases the risk of back injury. Instead, it is recommended to bend at the knees and hips while keeping the back straight.
A nurse is talking with the partner of a client who has dementia. The client's partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?
- A. Role ambiguity
- B. Role overload
- C. Role conflict
- D. Sick role
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Role conflict. Role conflict occurs when an individual experiences conflicting demands from different roles they hold, causing stress. In this scenario, the partner is struggling to balance the roles of caregiver and managing household responsibilities, leading to frustration.
A: Role ambiguity refers to uncertainty or lack of clarity about one's responsibilities, which is not evident in the scenario.
B: Role overload is when an individual has too many responsibilities to manage effectively, but in this case, the partner is specifically struggling with conflicting roles.
D: Sick role is when an individual's illness affects their ability to fulfill their roles, which is not the primary issue in this scenario.
In summary, the partner's frustration in balancing caregiving and household responsibilities indicates role conflict as the correct type of role-performance stress being experienced.