Mr. Chua has developed liver cirrhosis. Nurse Bea expects alteration in which laboratory values?
- A. carbon dioxide level
- B. prothrombin time
- C. gastric pH
- D. white blood cell count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: prothrombin time. In liver cirrhosis, the liver's ability to produce clotting factors is impaired, leading to prolonged prothrombin time. This indicates an increased risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect as carbon dioxide levels are not typically affected by liver cirrhosis. Choice C, gastric pH, is unrelated to liver function. Choice D, white blood cell count, is not directly affected by liver cirrhosis. Therefore, the alteration in prothrombin time is the most relevant laboratory value to monitor in this case.
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After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?
- A. Esophageal carcinoma
- B. Laryngeal carcinoma
- C. Pituitary carcinoma
- D. Colorectal carcinoma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is the surgical removal of the pituitary gland's adenohypophysis.
2. The procedure is used to treat pituitary tumors, which can be benign or malignant, but commonly referred to as pituitary adenomas.
3. Pituitary adenomas may secrete hormones excessively, leading to various endocrine disorders.
4. Hormone replacement therapy is required post-surgery to manage hormonal deficiencies.
5. Therefore, the correct answer is C (Pituitary carcinoma).
Summary:
A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not involve the pituitary gland, which is the primary target of a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy.
Barbiturate anticonvulsants are effective in treating all of these seizure types, except:
- A. partial seizures.
- B. febrile seizures.
- C. tonic-clonic seizures.
- D. absence seizures.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: absence seizures. Barbiturate anticonvulsants are not effective in treating absence seizures because they can worsen this type of seizure by suppressing brain activity. Barbiturates are typically used to treat tonic-clonic seizures and partial seizures, but not absence seizures. Febrile seizures are typically managed without barbiturate anticonvulsants. In summary, barbiturate anticonvulsants are effective in treating partial seizures and tonic-clonic seizures, but not absence seizures or febrile seizures due to their mechanisms of action and potential side effects.
A patient who was walking in the woods disturbed a beehive, was stung, and was taken to the emergency department immediately due to allergies to bee stings. Which of the ff. symptoms would the nurse expect to see upon admission of this patient? i.Pallor around the sting bites iv. Retinal hemorrhage ii.Numbness and tingling in the extremities v. Tachycardia iii.Respiratory stridor vi. Dyspnea
- A. 1, 2, 2004
- B. 3, 5, 2006
- C. 2, 3, 2004
- D. 4, 5, 2006
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4, 5, 2006. Upon admission, a patient with allergies to bee stings may exhibit tachycardia (increased heart rate) due to an allergic reaction. Respiratory stridor (high-pitched wheezing) may occur as a sign of airway inflammation. Retinal hemorrhage and dyspnea (difficulty breathing) are not typically associated with bee sting allergies. Pallor and numbness/tingling are also not common symptoms in this scenario. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
A patient who has just had a TURP asks his nurse to explain why he has to have the bladder irrigation because it seems to increase his pain. Which of the following explanations by the nurse is best?
- A. “The bladder irrigation is needed to stop the bleeding in the bladder.”
- B. “Antibiotics are being administered into the bladder to prevent infection.”
- C. “The irrigation is needed to keep the catheter from becoming occluded by blood clots.”
- D. “Normal production of urine is maintained with the irrigations until healing can occur.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should explain that bladder irrigation is necessary to prevent blood clots from occluding the catheter after a TURP procedure.
Step 2: Without irrigation, blood clots could block the catheter, leading to urinary retention and potential complications.
Step 3: This explanation addresses the patient's concern about increased pain and highlights the importance of the irrigation in maintaining proper urine flow.
Step 4: Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of irrigation is not to stop bleeding but to prevent clot formation. Choice B is incorrect because the irrigation is not for administering antibiotics. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the issue of clot formation.
A nurse has developed a plan of care with nursing interventions designed to meet specific client outcomes. The outcomes are not met by the time specified in the plan. What should the nurse do now in terms of evaluation?
- A. Continue to follow the written plan of care.
- B. Make recommendations for revising the plan of care.
- C. Ask another health care professional to design a plan of care.
- D. State 'goal will be met at a later date.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Make recommendations for revising the plan of care. When client outcomes are not met within the specified time frame, the nurse should reassess the plan of care to identify any potential reasons for the lack of progress. By making recommendations for revising the plan of care, the nurse can adjust interventions to better align with the client's needs and facilitate goal achievement. Continuing to follow the written plan of care (choice A) without modification may not address the underlying issues preventing goal attainment. Asking another health care professional to design a plan of care (choice C) may not be necessary if the nurse can assess and revise the current plan. Stating 'goal will be met at a later date' (choice D) does not address the need for immediate action to reassess and modify the plan for better outcomes.