Nokea
Mrs. Miller has a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. To prevent renal damage her plan of care should include
- A. restricting fluid intake until symptoms are under control
- B. reducing protein intake
- C. understanding the necessity of continuing drug therapy indefinitely
- D. preventing viral infections
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
1. Acute pyelonephritis requires antibiotic therapy to eliminate the infection and prevent renal damage.
2. Continuing drug therapy indefinitely ensures complete eradication of the infection.
3. Stopping drug therapy prematurely can lead to recurrence and potential renal complications.
4. Understanding the necessity of drug therapy is crucial for Mrs. Miller's long-term renal health.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Restricting fluid intake can worsen the infection and hinder recovery.
B: Incorrect. Protein intake is not directly related to the treatment of acute pyelonephritis.
D: Incorrect. Preventing viral infections is not directly relevant to the treatment of acute pyelonephritis.
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The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is essential in regulating blood pressure. Which of the following hormones involved in RAAS is produced by the kidney?
- A. Renin
- B. Angiotensin I
- C. Angiotensin II
- D. Aldosterone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Renin is produced and released by the kidney in response to low blood pressure or low sodium levels. Renin initiates the RAAS cascade by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is then converted to angiotensin II, leading to vasoconstriction and aldosterone release. Aldosterone, produced by the adrenal glands, promotes sodium and water retention. Therefore, choice A is correct as renin is the hormone produced by the kidney to regulate blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are downstream products of the RAAS cascade and are not directly produced by the kidney.
Intravenous Plain NSS infusion is the treatment of choice for the following * complications of furosemide therapy:
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Severe dehydration
- C. Dilutional hyponatremia
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Intravenous Plain NSS infusion is the treatment of choice for dilutional hyponatremia, which can occur as a complication of furosemide therapy due to excessive diuresis leading to low sodium levels. This solution helps restore normal sodium levels without affecting the fluid balance.
Summary:
A: Hypokalemia - Furosemide therapy can cause hypokalemia, which is usually treated with potassium supplements, not NSS infusion.
B: Severe dehydration - NSS infusion may be used for severe dehydration but is not specific to furosemide therapy complications.
D: None of the above - Incorrect, as C is the correct answer for dilutional hyponatremia.
If necessary, your physician can increase your dose up to 40 mg per day.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Maybe
- D. Not mentioned
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The statement indicates the possibility of increasing the dose up to 40 mg, implying that it is within the physician's discretion.
Step 2: The use of the word "can" suggests the potential for the physician to make such an adjustment.
Step 3: The phrase "if necessary" implies that the dose adjustment will be based on the individual's specific needs.
Step 4: Therefore, it is true that the physician has the authority to increase the dose up to 40 mg per day based on the patient's condition and requirements.
Which of the following interferes with mycolic acid synthesis an essential * component of mycobacterial cell walls for which resistance will develop rapidly if the drug is used alone?
- A. Isoniazid
- B. Rifampicin
- C. Pyrazinamide
- D. Ethambutol
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mycolic acid synthesis is inhibited by Ethambutol by targeting the enzyme arabinosyltransferase, essential for cell wall synthesis in mycobacteria. Resistance develops slowly with Ethambutol, unlike other choices which target different pathways (A: Isoniazid - inhibits mycolic acid synthesis by targeting InhA enzyme, B: Rifampicin - inhibits RNA polymerase, C: Pyrazinamide - disrupts membrane potential). Ethambutol is essential in combination therapy to prevent resistance.
Which test is required for a diagnosis of pyelonephritis?
- A. Renal biopsy
- B. Blood culture
- C. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
- D. Urine for culture and sensitivity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Urine for culture and sensitivity. This test is required for a diagnosis of pyelonephritis as it helps identify the specific bacteria causing the infection and determines the most effective antibiotic treatment. Renal biopsy (A) is not typically required for diagnosing pyelonephritis. Blood culture (B) may be helpful in severe cases but is not specific for pyelonephritis. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) (C) is a radiological test used to visualize the urinary tract but does not confirm the diagnosis of pyelonephritis.