Nearly all cervical carcinomas contain human papillomavirus (HPV). Which of the following types is never associated with such malignancy?
- A. type6
- B. type 16
- C. type 18
- D. type 31
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HPV type 6 is typically associated with low-grade lesions and genital warts, not cervical carcinoma.
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The nurse is admitting a school-age child in acute renal failure with reduced glomerular filtration rate. Which urine test is the most useful clinical indication of glomerular filtration rate?
- A. pH
- B. Osmolality
- C. Creatinine
- D. Protein level
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Creatinine is a waste product produced by muscle metabolism that is normally filtered by the glomerulus in the kidneys and excreted in urine. The level of creatinine in the urine is a direct reflection of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). As GFR decreases in conditions such as acute renal failure, the amount of creatinine excreted in the urine also decreases. Therefore, measuring creatinine levels in the urine is a useful clinical indication of the glomerular filtration rate and kidney function. pH, osmolality, and protein level may provide additional information but are not as directly linked to GFR as creatinine levels.
A child has a postoperative appendectomy incision covered by a dressing. The nurse has just completed a prescribed dressing change for this child. Which description is an accurate documentation of this procedure?
- A. Dressing change to appendectomy incision completed, child tolerated procedure well, parent present
- B. No complications noted during dressing change to appendectomy incision
- C. Appendectomy incision non-reddened, sutures intact, no drainage noted on old dressing, new dressing applied, procedure tolerated well by child
- D. No changes to appendectomy incisional area, dressing changed, child complained of pain during procedure, new dressing clean, dry and intact
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Option C provides a thorough and accurate documentation of the dressing change procedure for the postoperative appendectomy incision. This documentation includes essential details such as the condition of the incision site (non-reddened, sutures intact, no drainage noted on old dressing), the action taken (new dressing applied), and the outcome (procedure tolerated well by the child). It covers all the necessary aspects of the dressing change procedure and clearly indicates the status of the incision site before and after the intervention. Options A, B, and D do not provide as comprehensive and detailed information about the dressing change procedure and its outcomes, making option C the most appropriate choice for accurate documentation.
An agitated, confused client arrives in the emergency department. The client's history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:
- A. 2 to 5 of a simple carbohydrate.
- B. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrat
- C. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
- D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When treating hypoglycemia, it is important to provide a quick source of sugar to raise blood glucose levels rapidly. Consuming 10 to 15 grams of a simple carbohydrate is appropriate for treating mild to moderate hypoglycemia. Examples of foods that contain approximately 10 to 15 grams of simple carbohydrates include four glucose tabs, 4 ounces of fruit juice, 5 to 6 pieces of hard candy, or 1 tablespoon of honey. It is also recommended to recheck blood glucose levels after 15 minutes and have a snack or meal to prevent glucose levels from dropping again.
All the following are true about infant sleep between 2-6 months EXCEPT
- A. total sleep hours are about 14-16 hr/24 hr
- B. sleeps about 9-10 hr concentrated at night
- C. sleeps 2 naps/day
- D. the sleep cycle time is similar to that of adults
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Infant sleep cycles differ significantly from adult patterns.
Once admitted to hospital the physician indicates that Mr. Gubatan is a paraplegic. The family asks the nurse what that means. The nurse explains that:
- A. Upper extremities are paralyzed
- B. Both lower and upper extremities are
- C. Lower extremities are paralyzed paralyzed
- D. One side of the body is paralyzed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Paraplegia is a condition characterized by the paralysis of both lower extremities. It does not affect the upper extremities or one side of the body specifically. When someone is described as a paraplegic, it means they have lost function and sensation in their lower limbs, usually due to a spinal cord injury or disease affecting the lower part of the spinal cord. This term helps provide a specific understanding of the type and location of the paralysis in the body.