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Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing is prescribed for a client with pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?
- A. Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods.
- B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client's respiratory rate.
- C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
- D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. High levels of oxygen over a prolonged period can lead to oxygen toxicity.
2. Oxygen toxicity can cause lung damage and respiratory distress.
3. To prevent oxygen toxicity, it is crucial to monitor and limit the duration and amount of oxygen administered.
4. Therefore, avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods is the most effective intervention to prevent oxygen toxicity.
Summary of other choices:
B: Administering a sedative does not address the root cause of oxygen toxicity and can mask symptoms.
C: Removing the nasal cannula at night can lead to hypoxia and is not a safe practice.
D: Running oxygen through a hydration source does not prevent oxygen toxicity and is not a recognized intervention.
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A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
- B. Administer a glucagon injection
- C. Provide a snack with protein
- D. Encourage the client to rest
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate because the client is experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. Carbohydrates will quickly raise the blood sugar level. Glucagon injection is used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious. Providing a snack with protein is not the immediate action needed to raise the blood sugar rapidly. Encouraging rest is not effective in treating hypoglycemia.
The nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days post-op following abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Administer pain medication
- D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This is because the client is experiencing evisceration, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate attention to prevent infection and further complications. By applying a sterile saline dressing, the nurse can protect the exposed bowel from contamination, maintain moisture, and promote healing. This action helps to reduce the risk of infection and provides a temporary barrier until further interventions can be implemented.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to protect the exposed bowel is the priority.
C: Administering pain medication does not address the primary concern of protecting the exposed bowel.
D: Covering the wound with an abdominal binder does not provide the necessary protection and could potentially exacerbate the situation by applying pressure to the protruding bowel.
The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Monitor daily weights
- B. Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload
- C. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day
- D. Increase protein intake to promote healing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common complication in chronic kidney disease. This can lead to serious issues like heart failure. Monitoring weight daily (A) is important, but specifically reporting significant gains promptly (C) is crucial. Limiting fluid intake (B) is important, but not the top priority. Increasing protein intake (D) may worsen kidney function, so it's not recommended.
The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 75 ml/hour to a client who had a bowel resection 4 days ago. Which laboratory finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL
- B. White blood cell count of 8000/mm³
- C. Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L
- D. Serum calcium of 7.8 mg/dL
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum calcium of 7.8 mg/dL. This finding indicates hypocalcemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Low calcium levels can be caused by TPN administration or poor calcium absorption following bowel resection. Immediate intervention may include administering IV calcium gluconate.
A: Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL is within the normal range and not an immediate concern.
B: White blood cell count of 8000/mm³ is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.
C: Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat.
The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Verify the client's blood type
- B. Ensure the PRBCs are warm
- C. Check the client's vital signs
- D. Obtain the client's consent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Verify the client's blood type. This is crucial before administering PRBCs to prevent a potentially life-threatening transfusion reaction. Step 1: Check the blood type on the PRBCs label. Step 2: Verify the client's blood type against the label. Steps 3: Crossmatch the blood to ensure compatibility. Checking vital signs (C) is important but not the priority. Ensuring PRBCs are warm (B) is not necessary. Obtaining consent (D) is important but verifying blood type takes precedence to ensure safe transfusion.