Parents tell the nurse that their 1-year-old son often sleeps with them. They seem unconcerned about this. The nurse's response should be based on which statement?
- A. Children should not sleep with their parents.
- B. Separation from parents should be completed by this age.
- C. Daytime attention should be increased.
- D. This is a common and accepted practice, especially in some cultural groups.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D because it acknowledges that co-sleeping with children, especially infants and toddlers, is a common and accepted practice in various cultural groups. Co-sleeping can have benefits such as promoting bonding and facilitating breastfeeding. However, it is essential for the nurse to educate the parents on safe sleep practices to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) or other sleep-related accidents. It is important to provide guidance on creating a safe sleep environment for the child if they continue co-sleeping.
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Regarding the gross motor skills, a 2-year-old child can
- A. heel-toe walk
- B. balance on each foot 6 sec
- C. walk up and down stairs
- D. balance well on each foot
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A 2-year-old typically can walk up and down stairs with support.
When performing a newborn assessment, the nurse should measure the vital signs in the following sequence:
- A. Pulse, respirations, temperature
- B. Temperature, pulse, respirations
- C. Respirations, temperature, pulse
- D. Respirations, pulse, temperature
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When performing a newborn assessment, it is important to measure the vital signs in the sequence of pulse, respirations, and temperature. This sequence is recommended because measuring the pulse first provides immediate information on the baby's cardiovascular status, followed by respirations to assess respiratory function, and ending with temperature which can be influenced by the other vital signs. This comprehensive approach helps ensure all vital signs are assessed accurately and in a logical order.
As part of primary cancer prevention program, an oncology nurse answers questions from the public at health fair. When someone asks about the laryngeal cancer, the nurse should explain that:
- A. Laryngeal cancer is one of the most preventable types of cancer
- B. Inhaling polluted air isn't a risk factor for laryngeal cancer
- C. Laryngeal cancer occurs primarily in women
- D. Adenocarcinoma accounts for most cases of laryngeal cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Laryngeal cancer is indeed one of the most preventable types of cancer. The primary risk factors for laryngeal cancer include tobacco use (particularly smoking) and excessive alcohol consumption. Therefore, avoiding tobacco products, moderating alcohol intake, and maintaining a healthy lifestyle can significantly reduce the risk of developing laryngeal cancer. Additionally, early detection through regular check-ups and screenings can help in detecting any precancerous or cancerous changes in the larynx, leading to better treatment outcomes and prognosis.
Which defect results in increased pulmonary blood flow?
- A. Pulmonic stenosis
- B. Tricuspid atresia
- C. Atrial septal defect
- D. Transposition of the great arteries
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Atrial septal defect (ASD) is a congenital heart defect where there is an abnormal opening in the atrial septum, leading to a left-to-right shunt of blood. This shunt causes increased pulmonary blood flow, as oxygenated blood from the left atrium is shunted back into the right atrium and then into the pulmonary circulation. Over time, this increased pulmonary blood flow can lead to pulmonary hypertension and potentially Eisenmenger syndrome if left untreated. Pulmonic stenosis, tricuspid atresia, and transposition of the great arteries all typically result in decreased pulmonary blood flow rather than increased pulmonary blood flow.
HIV antibody testing procedures using a finger stick or venipuncture to obtain whole blood, plasma, or serum, and tests using oral fluid were approved. All the following regarding this test are true EXCEPT
- A. they are simple and accurate as to render the likelihood of an erroneous result by the user negligible
- B. a positive result does not need confirmation by Western blot analysis or immunofluorescence assay
- C. they allow women who have not been tested or are unaware of their HIV status to reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission of antiretroviral therapy implementation
- D. they significantly reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A positive result from rapid HIV tests still requires confirmation with more specific tests like Western blot or immunofluorescence assay.