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PID is:
- A. Prostate inflammatory disease
- B. Pelvic infiltrative disorder
- C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
- D. Prostate inhibitory disorder
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct:
1. PID stands for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease.
2. PID is an infection of the female reproductive organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries.
3. Symptoms include pelvic pain, abnormal vaginal discharge, fever, and painful urination.
4. Choice A is incorrect because PID does not specifically refer to the prostate.
5. Choice B is incorrect as PID does not involve infiltration but rather inflammation.
6. Choice D is incorrect as PID is not a disorder that inhibits the prostate.
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Arterial supply of breast include
- A. Internal thoracic artery
- B. Thoracoaromial artery
- C. Superior epigastric artery
- D. Common carotid artery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Internal thoracic artery. The internal thoracic artery is a major branch of the subclavian artery and supplies the breast tissue. It gives rise to the perforating branches that supply the breast. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect because the thoracoaromial artery primarily supplies the upper limb, the superior epigastric artery supplies the anterior abdominal wall, and the common carotid artery supplies the head and neck, but not the breast tissue. Therefore, based on the anatomical knowledge of arterial supply, the internal thoracic artery is the correct choice for the arterial supply of the breast.
Which statement regarding the uterus is true:
- A. it is pear-shaped;
- B. the superior extremity is represented by the corpus;
- C. the vagina is inserted on the inferior extremity;
- D. it is located laterally in the pelvis;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: it is pear-shaped. The uterus is indeed pear-shaped in structure, with a wider upper part called the corpus and a narrower lower part called the cervix. The pear shape allows for the expansion required during pregnancy. The other choices are incorrect: B is inaccurate as the superior extremity is the fundus, not the corpus; C is incorrect as the vagina is connected to the cervix, not the inferior extremity; D is wrong as the uterus is located centrally in the pelvis.
Why is osteoporosis much more common in elderly women than in elderly men?
- A. Men continue to produce testosterone throughout their lifetime, whereas women cease estrogen production after menopause
- B. Women consume less dietary calcium than men
- C. Gastrointestinal absorption of calcium is more effective in men than in women
- D. The bones of women contain less calcium than those of men even before menopause
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density.
Step 2: Estrogen helps regulate bone turnover and calcium balance.
Step 3: Women experience a significant drop in estrogen levels after menopause.
Step 4: Decreased estrogen production leads to increased bone resorption.
Step 5: Men, on the other hand, continue to produce testosterone throughout their lifetime, which helps maintain bone density.
Summary: A is correct because men maintain testosterone production, while women cease estrogen production after menopause, leading to a higher risk of osteoporosis in elderly women. B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the hormonal changes that contribute to osteoporosis gender disparity.
The nurse correlates which patient complaint with suspected enlargement of the prostate gland?
- A. Constipation
- B. Change in bowel patterns
- C. Weak urine stream
- D. Increased mucus in urine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weak urine stream. Enlargement of the prostate gland can compress the urethra, leading to difficulty in urination and a weak urine stream. Constipation (A), change in bowel patterns (B), and increased mucus in urine (D) are not typically associated with prostate enlargement. This highlights the importance of understanding the anatomical and physiological implications of prostate enlargement on urinary function.
A 67-year-old male client had some serum tests performed during his annual examination. The nurse reviews his results, as follows: testosterone: 680 ng/dL; prostate-specific antigen: 10 ng/mL; prolactin: 5 ng/mL. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Assess for possible galactorrhea with breast discharge.
- B. Note the possibility of a testicular tumor.
- C. Communicate to the provider that results were normal
- D. Prepare the client for further diagnostic testing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prepare the client for further diagnostic testing. A testosterone level of 680 ng/dL is high for a 67-year-old male, which could indicate an underlying medical condition. A prostate-specific antigen level of 10 ng/mL is elevated and could suggest prostate issues. Prolactin level of 5 ng/mL is within normal range but still needs further evaluation due to the other abnormal results. Therefore, preparing the client for further diagnostic testing is crucial to investigate the potential underlying health concerns.
Incorrect options:
A: Assess for possible galactorrhea with breast discharge - Irrelevant as galactorrhea is not indicated by the given results.
B: Note the possibility of a testicular tumor - Testosterone level elevation is more indicative of non-testicular issues.
C: Communicate to the provider that results were normal - Results are not normal, warranting further evaluation.