Nokea
The ovarian phase between the end of menstruation and beginning of ovulation is the
- A. Menstrual phase
- B. Preovulatory phase
- C. Proliferative phase
- D. Follicular phase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proliferative phase. During this phase, the endometrium thickens in preparation for a potential implantation of a fertilized egg. This phase occurs after the menstrual phase and before ovulation, marking the time when the ovarian follicles are developing under the influence of FSH. The other choices are incorrect because the menstrual phase (A) refers to the shedding of the endometrium, the preovulatory phase (B) occurs just before ovulation, and the follicular phase (D) includes both the menstrual and preovulatory phases.
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When menstruation ends in middle age:
- A. Menopause
- B. Gestation
- C. Implantation
- D. uterus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Menopause. Menopause refers to the natural cessation of menstruation in middle-aged women, typically around the age of 45-55. It occurs due to declining levels of estrogen and progesterone hormones, leading to the end of reproductive capacity. Gestation (B) refers to pregnancy, not the cessation of menstruation. Implantation (C) is the process of a fertilized egg attaching to the uterus, not related to the end of menstruation. Uterus (D) is an organ involved in menstruation but does not specifically refer to the cessation of menstruation in middle age.
Which of the following would a nurse suggest for a client with an inflammation of the prostate gland?
- A. Treat the client and also his sexual partners.
- B. Avoid standing for long periods and foods that cause diarrhea.
- C. No masturbation or sexual intercourse until treated.
- D. Avoid foods that may cause acidity.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Abstinence from sexual activity until treatment is complete helps prevent exacerbation and transmission.
Days 6-14 of the uterine (menstrual)
- A. perineum cycle are known as the ________
- B. mons pubis phas
- C. This phase concludes with
- D. vulva ovulation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because days 6-14 of the uterine menstrual cycle correspond to the ovulation phase, where an egg is released from the ovary. This is a critical period for fertility. Choice A is incorrect as the perineum refers to the area between the anus and genitals, not a specific phase of the menstrual cycle. Choice B is incorrect as the mons pubis is a fatty tissue overlying the pubic bone, not a phase of the menstrual cycle. Choice C is incorrect as it is incomplete and lacks relevance to the menstrual cycle.
Fertilization usually occurs in the nuclear division only. ______.
- A. Meiosis produces two
- B. ovary
- C. vesicular (Graafian) follicle
- D. Meiosis occurs in all cells of
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because meiosis occurs in all cells of the body. Meiosis is a specialized type of cell division that produces gametes (sperm and egg cells) with half the number of chromosomes. Fertilization, the fusion of sperm and egg, typically occurs after meiosis in the reproductive organs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the process of fertilization or meiosis occurring in all cells. Choice A talks about the outcome of meiosis, choice B refers to a specific organ, and choice C mentions a stage in the development of an egg cell.
Your 20 year old male patient is c/o growths on his penile shaft. He noticed them first about 6 weeks ago, and he thinks there are more now. Denies pain with intercourse or urination. He has had 3 former partners and has been with his current girlfriend for 6 months. She is on the pill so they do not use condoms. Denies fever, weight loss, night sweats. His PMH is unremarkable. He is in college part time and works in construction and is engaged to be married and has no children. On exam, you see several moist papules along all sides of the penile shaft and two on the corona. He has been circumcised. On palpation of his inguinal region there is no inguinal lymphadenopathy. Which abnormality of the penis does this patient most likely have?
- A. Condylomata acuminata
- B. Genital herpes
- C. Syphilitic chancre
- D. Penile carcinoma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Condylomata acuminata (genital warts) based on the patient's presentation of painless moist papules on the penile shaft and corona, multiple sexual partners, lack of other systemic symptoms, and absence of inguinal lymphadenopathy. This is consistent with HPV infection, the most likely cause of genital warts. Genital herpes (B) typically presents as painful vesicles or ulcers, syphilitic chancre (C) presents as a painless ulcer, and penile carcinoma (D) usually presents as a solitary, indurated, ulcerated lesion with associated lymphadenopathy.