Nokea
Regarding histology of mammary gland
- A. Lactiferous duct is mainly lined by simple cuboidal epithelium
- B. Nipple is lubricated by sebaceous gland
- C. Terminal ductules are seen in lactating mammary gland
- D. Interlobular stroma increase in pregnancy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Nipple is lubricated by sebaceous gland
Rationale:
1. Sebaceous glands produce sebum, which lubricates the skin.
2. The nipple is a part of the skin, and sebaceous glands present in the areola secrete sebum to lubricate the nipple.
3. This lubrication helps protect the nipple during breastfeeding.
Summary of other choices:
A: Lactiferous duct is mainly lined by simple cuboidal epithelium - Incorrect. The lactiferous duct is lined by stratified cuboidal and columnar epithelium.
C: Terminal ductules are seen in lactating mammary gland - Incorrect. Terminal ductules are present in non-lactating mammary glands.
D: Interlobular stroma increase in pregnancy - Incorrect. Interlobular stroma does not significantly increase in pregnancy; rather, the alveoli and ducts enlarge during this period.
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The external genitalia of the female are collectively called the
- A. labia
- B. vulva
- C. clitoris
- D. mons pubis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: vulva. The vulva includes all external female genital structures, such as the labia, clitoris, and mons pubis. The term "vulva" is the most inclusive and accurate choice, encompassing all components of the external female genitalia. The other options, A, C, and D, refer to specific parts of the vulva, making them incorrect in this context. The labia are the outer and inner folds surrounding the vaginal opening, the clitoris is a highly sensitive organ involved in sexual pleasure, and the mons pubis is the fatty tissue overlying the pubic bone.
Which patient does the nurse recognize as having the highest risk for ovarian cancer?
- A. A 24-year-old nulliparous woman who has a history of multiple sexual partners
- B. A 32-year-old woman who has had six live births and a history of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection
- C. A 55-year-old woman who reached menarche at age 12 and menopause at age 54
- D. A 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient is a 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years. Nulliparity (never giving birth) and prolonged use of hormone replacement therapy are both risk factors for ovarian cancer. Age is also a significant risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence in women over 60.
Choice A is incorrect because although having multiple sexual partners may increase the risk of certain sexually transmitted infections, it is not a direct risk factor for ovarian cancer.
Choice B is incorrect because while HPV infection is associated with cervical cancer, it is not a known risk factor for ovarian cancer.
Choice C is incorrect because the age of menarche and menopause are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer.
In summary, the correct answer, D, combines the highest risk factors for ovarian cancer, which are nulliparity, prolonged hormone replacement therapy, and older age.
Following a discussion about impending chemotherapy, Mrs. Morris says: 'I need to buy a wig.' From her comment you know Mrs. Morris understands one of the side effects of chemotherapy is
- A. hirsutism
- B. alopecia
- C. tinnea capitus
- D. folliculitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alopecia, or hair loss, is a common side effect of chemotherapy.
Male sex chromosomes are represented as ________.
- A. XX
- B. XO
- C. XY
- D. XZ
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is C: XY. In humans, males have one X and one Y chromosome, while females have two X chromosomes. This combination determines an individual's sex. Choice A (XX) is incorrect because it represents the genotype for females. Choice B (XO) is incorrect as it denotes Turner syndrome in females with only one X chromosome. Choice D (XZ) is not a valid representation of male sex chromosomes in humans.
About the external male genital organ, we can state the following:
- A. it is part of the urinary ducts, being a urination organ;
- B. it is represented by the urethra;
- C. it is a pair organ;
- D. it is located above the scrotum, anterior to the pubian symphisis;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer B is correct:
1. The external male genital organ is represented by the urethra, which is the duct that carries urine from the bladder out of the body.
2. The urethra is responsible for both urination and ejaculation.
3. The other choices are incorrect because the external male genital organ is not part of the urinary ducts, not a pair organ, and not located above the scrotum.