Nokea
What results from spermiogenesis? ________.
- A. four spermatogonia
- B. emission
- C. four spermatids
- D. menses
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spermiogenesis is the process of spermatid maturation into spermatozoa. During this process, each spermatid transforms into a single sperm cell. Therefore, the correct answer is C: four spermatids, as spermiogenesis results in the formation of four mature sperm cells from each spermatid.
A: Four spermatogonia are the cells that undergo mitosis to produce spermatocytes, not the result of spermiogenesis.
B: Emission refers to the release of semen during ejaculation, not the result of spermiogenesis.
D: Menses is the shedding of the uterine lining during the menstrual cycle in females, not related to spermiogenesis.
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Which of the following statements relating to lactation is incorrect.
- A. plasma prolactin releasing factor stimulates the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary.
- B. mechanical stimulation and neural inputs stimulate the anterior pituitary to secrete prolactin releasing factor and oxytocin.
- C. plasma oxytocin stimulates the contraction of breast glands causing milk ejection.
- D. progesterone helps prepare the mammary glands for lactation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because mechanical stimulation and neural inputs do not directly stimulate the anterior pituitary to secrete prolactin releasing factor and oxytocin. The release of prolactin is primarily controlled by the hypothalamus through the release of prolactin inhibitory hormone (dopamine) and prolactin releasing hormone. Oxytocin release is controlled by the hypothalamus in response to suckling. Choices A, C, and D are all correct statements about lactation. Plasma prolactin releasing factor (prolactin releasing hormone) does stimulate the release of prolactin, plasma oxytocin does stimulate milk ejection, and progesterone does prepare the mammary glands for lactation.
Which patient does the nurse recognize as having the highest risk for ovarian cancer?
- A. A 24-year-old nulliparous woman who has a history of multiple sexual partners
- B. A 32-year-old woman who has had six live births and a history of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection
- C. A 55-year-old woman who reached menarche at age 12 and menopause at age 54
- D. A 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient is a 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years. Nulliparity (never giving birth) and prolonged use of hormone replacement therapy are both risk factors for ovarian cancer. Age is also a significant risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence in women over 60.
Choice A is incorrect because although having multiple sexual partners may increase the risk of certain sexually transmitted infections, it is not a direct risk factor for ovarian cancer.
Choice B is incorrect because while HPV infection is associated with cervical cancer, it is not a known risk factor for ovarian cancer.
Choice C is incorrect because the age of menarche and menopause are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer.
In summary, the correct answer, D, combines the highest risk factors for ovarian cancer, which are nulliparity, prolonged hormone replacement therapy, and older age.
While giving a history, a patient reports having a weak urinary stream and feeling that his bladder is not empty after urination. Based on these data, what finding does the nurse anticipate upon examination?
- A. An enlarged prostate gland palpated on the anterior wall of the rectum
- B. An indirect hernia palpated through the inguinal ring when the patient coughs
- C. The foreskin of the penis cannot be returned to position after retraction behind the glans
- D. A nodular prostate gland palpated on the posterior wall of the rectum
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An enlarged prostate gland palpated on the anterior wall of the rectum. In this case, the patient's weak urinary stream and feeling of incomplete bladder emptying are classic symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). During a rectal examination, an enlarged prostate gland can be felt as a smooth, rubbery, and symmetrically enlarged mass on the anterior wall of the rectum. This finding correlates with the patient's urinary symptoms, indicating obstruction of the urethra by the enlarged prostate.
Choice B is incorrect because an indirect hernia is not typically associated with urinary symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it describes paraphimosis, a condition where the foreskin cannot be returned to its original position. Choice D is incorrect as a nodular prostate gland palpated on the posterior wall of the rectum is more characteristic of prostate cancer rather than BPH, which is typically felt on the anterior wall.
The nurse documents which finding as expected on inspection of the anus?
- A. Skin tone darker and coarser than that of the surrounding skin
- B. Sphincter lightly closed when the patient is relaxed
- C. Large amount of stiff, curling hair surrounding the anus
- D. Slight protrusion under the skin when the patient strains or bears down
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the normal skin tone of the anus is typically slightly darker and coarser than the surrounding skin due to increased melanin concentration. This is a result of the natural pigmentation of the area.
Choice B is incorrect because the sphincter should be relaxed during inspection, not lightly closed. Choice C is incorrect as a large amount of stiff, curling hair surrounding the anus is not an expected finding. Choice D is incorrect as a slight protrusion under the skin when the patient strains or bears down could indicate hemorrhoids, which are not considered normal.
About the external male genital organ, we can state the following:
- A. it is part of the urinary ducts, being a urination organ;
- B. it is represented by the urethra;
- C. it is a pair organ;
- D. it is located above the scrotum, anterior to the pubian symphisis;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer B is correct:
1. The external male genital organ is represented by the urethra, which is the duct that carries urine from the bladder out of the body.
2. The urethra is responsible for both urination and ejaculation.
3. The other choices are incorrect because the external male genital organ is not part of the urinary ducts, not a pair organ, and not located above the scrotum.