Nokea
Snellen chart evaluation indicated that the patient vision is 20/30. What is the proper description of this result?
- A. At 20 feet, this patient can see what a person with normal vision can see at 30 feet
- B. At 30 feet, this patient can see what a person with normal vision can see at 20 feet
- C. At 20 feet, this patient can see what few people can see at 30 feet
- D. This patient has sight abilities that are worse than a patient with 20/40 vision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 20/30 means that at 20 feet, the patient can see what someone with normal vision sees at 30 feet.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which immunization reduces a patient’s risk for infection with the virus that causes painful localized blistering rash?
- A. Smallpox vaccine
- B. Varicella vaccine (chicken pox)
- C. Shingles (herpes zoster) vaccine
- D. Meningococcal vaccine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Shingles vaccine reduces the risk of herpes zoster, which causes painful rash.
What term was historically used to refer to the medical professionals who specialized in the use of X-ray technology for diagnosis and treatment?
- A. Radiologists
- B. Roentgenologists
- C. Sonographers
- D. Nuclear Medicine Physicians
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The term "Roentgenologists" was used historically to refer to specialists in the use of X-ray technology.
Which cranial nerves are responsible for eye movement?
- A. CN II, III, IV
- B. CN III, IV, VI
- C. CN II, IV, VI
- D. CN III, IV, VII
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI control eye movements.
What is an appropriate step in the initial management of the seven patients receiving atypical antipsychotics?
- A. No action is necessary, because one potential indication for atypical antipsychotic use is refractory behavioral disturbance in persons with significant dementia.
- B. Taper to discontinue the atypical antipsychotic; after a 2-week washout, begin therapy with zolpidem.
- C. Taper to discontinue the atypical antipsychotic, and create day programs that allow patients to develop a sleep deficit/need through the morning/afternoon/early evening.
- D. Start modafinil or a similar short-acting stimulant to minimize daytime sleepiness.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Creating day programs that help establish a sleep deficit and discontinuing antipsychotics is appropriate for managing the patients’ sleep issues.
An 80-year-old man is being evaluated for recent episodes of incontinence and confusion. His family states that he is usually independent with no altered mental issues but has become forgetful within the last 2 weeks. Which medication is most likely associated with these symptoms?
- A. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
- B. Warfarin (Coumadin)
- C. Ramipril (Altace)
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cimetidine can cause confusion and altered mental status in the elderly.