Nokea
Testicular cancer usually arises from the _____.
- A. scrotal sac
- B. seminiferous tubules
- C. epididymis
- D. interstitial cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: seminiferous tubules. Testicular cancer arises from the cells within the seminiferous tubules where sperm production occurs. These tubules are the most common site for testicular cancer to develop. The other choices are incorrect because testicular cancer typically does not originate from the scrotal sac (A), epididymis (C), or interstitial cells (D). The scrotal sac contains the testicles but does not produce cancer, the epididymis is a different structure involved in sperm maturation, and interstitial cells produce hormones rather than sperm.
You may also like to solve these questions
Mucous membrane partially or completely covering the vaginal orifice is called as:
- A. Clitoris
- B. Labia
- C. Hymen
- D. Vulva
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hymen. The hymen is a mucous membrane that partially or completely covers the vaginal orifice. It is a thin tissue located at the opening of the vagina. The hymen can vary in appearance and may partially cover the vaginal opening, making it an essential anatomical structure to consider. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Clitoris - The clitoris is a highly sensitive sexual organ located above the vaginal opening, not covering it.
B: Labia - The labia are the folds of skin surrounding the vaginal opening, not covering it entirely.
D: Vulva - The vulva refers to the external female genitalia, including the labia, clitoris, and vaginal opening, but it does not specifically refer to the mucous membrane covering the vaginal orifice.
A patient asks when she should make an appointment for her first Pap (Papanicolaou) test to screen for cervical cancer. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?
- A. There is no need for Pap tests until after you have become pregnant.
- B. All women should have the first Pap test after reaching menarche.
- C. All women should have the first Pap test after they are 19 years of age.
- D. All women should have the first Pap test when they become sexually active or at age 21.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The first Pap test should be done when a woman becomes sexually active or at age 21, whichever comes first. This is because cervical cancer is associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a sexually transmitted infection. Screening at this stage helps detect any abnormalities early on, increasing the chances of successful treatment.
A: Incorrect. Waiting until after pregnancy is not recommended as early detection is crucial in preventing cervical cancer.
B: Incorrect. The age of menarche is not a reliable indicator for when to start screening for cervical cancer.
C: Incorrect. Waiting until 19 may miss early signs of cervical abnormalities that could lead to cancer.
In summary, choice D is the most appropriate response as it aligns with current screening guidelines and focuses on early detection for optimal outcomes.
______________________ is the motion that extends the foot downward toward the ground as when pointing the toes or stepping on the gas pedal.
- A. Dorsiflexion
- B. Plantar flexion
- C. Rotation
- D. Flexion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Plantar flexion. Plantar flexion refers to the motion of extending the foot downward towards the ground, like when pointing the toes or pressing the gas pedal. This action is mainly controlled by the calf muscles, particularly the gastrocnemius and soleus. Dorsiflexion (A) is the opposite motion, where the foot is flexed upward towards the shin. Rotation (C) involves turning around an axis and is not relevant to this specific movement. Flexion (D) refers to the bending of a joint, not the extension of the foot downward. In summary, plantar flexion is the correct answer because it accurately describes the motion of extending the foot downward, while the other choices do not match the described movement.
A client with the herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) undergoes a viral shedding. Which of the following statements is true when caring for a client with HSV-2?
- A. An outbreak of the HSV-2 infection is often self-limiting and hence a treatment may be unnecessary.
- B. Clients don't seek treatment because of embarrassment.
- C. Healthcare providers and laboratories are not required by law to report.
- D. Reporting is up to the client, not the provider.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HSV-2 outbreaks are often self-limiting, though antiviral medications can help manage symptoms.
Choose the correct sequence of events in the post-fertilization cleavage process.
- A. Zygote - morula- 2 cells- 4 cells- 8 cells- blastula
- B. 2 cells- 4 cells- 8 cells- zygote- morula- blastul
- C. Zygote- 2 cells- 4 cells- 8 cells- morula- blastul
- D. 8 cells-4 cells-2 cells-morula-zygote-blastula
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence is A: Zygote - morula - 2 cells - 4 cells - 8 cells - blastula. After fertilization, the zygote undergoes cleavage to form the morula, which then divides into 2 cells, then 4 cells, and further into 8 cells. These cells then rearrange to form the blastula. This sequence aligns with the natural progression of post-fertilization cleavage in embryonic development.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the correct chronological order of events in post-fertilization cleavage. In these sequences, the order of cell divisions is mixed up, leading to an inaccurate representation of the cleavage process. It is crucial to understand the logical progression of events in embryonic development to identify the correct sequence of post-fertilization cleavage.