Nokea
Tetanus:
- A. is caused by clostridium tetani endotoxin
- B. is associated with a better prognosis if the incubation period is short
- C. can be manifest by rigidity of muscles in close proximity to the area of the initial injury
- D. usually presents with weakness in the extremities which then progresses to the facial muscles
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tetanus exotoxin, not endo, long incubation's better, local rigidity fits, not weakness march, autonomic storms. Nurses lock this chronic spasm tale.
You may also like to solve these questions
Why are endothelial cells in particular sensitive to the damage caused by high plasma glucose levels?
- A. Endothelial cells have a high metabolic activity
- B. Endothelial cells cannot regulate the glucose uptake
- C. Endothelial cells have a low level of antioxidants
- D. All statements provided above are correct
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Endothelial cells drown in glucose no uptake brakes, high sugar slams them, not just metabolism or low shields. A chronic vessel weak spot nurses watch this sugar soak.
Which of the following is NOT part of the histology of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis?
- A. Fatty infiltration in liver
- B. Fibrosis of liver
- C. Inflammatory infiltrates in lobules
- D. Cirrhosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: NASH histology includes steatosis (fatty infiltration), lobular inflammation, and fibrosis, per pathology definitions. Mallory bodies (intracellular inclusions) are classic but not universal. Cirrhosis is an advanced NAFLD outcome, not a defining NASH feature progression, not initial histology. This distinction aids physicians in staging chronic liver disease accurately.
A nurse is caring for a 65-year-old male who recently underwent an aortic valve replacement. Which of the following is a post-operative nursing care priority?
- A. Temperature monitoring
- B. Assess for bleeding
- C. Advance diet as tolerated
- D. Dressing change
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Valve replacement bleeds assessing for hemorrhage at surgical sites or anticoagulation tops post-op care, a life-or-death watch per ABCs. Fever, diet, dressings matter, but bleeding's immediate. Nurses hunt oozing or shock, ensuring stability, a priority in this fresh-cut cardiac zone.
The nurse is caring for a 55-year-old male who presented to this primary physician's office for his yearly check-up. Upon the physical assessment, the provider noted enlarged lymph nodes in the groin and neck region. The provider Questioned Joe regarding the possible causes of the finding. Which of the following diagnosis are consistent with this finding?
- A. Leukemia
- B. Lymphoma
- C. Sickle cell anemia
- D. Polycythemia vera
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lymphoma swells nodes neck and groin lumps fit this cancer's lymphoid sprawl, a diagnosis matching this check-up find. Leukemia bones out, sickle cell pains, polycythemia thickens none node-centric. Nurses tie this to lymphoma, anticipating biopsy, a nodal tale in this cancer hunt.
Madam Tan is newly diagnosed to have Type 2 DM. Her fasting plasma glucose is 12 mmol/L. Her blood pressure and fasting lipid profile are normal. She has been provided with patient education and advice on therapeutic life-style modification. Which is the most appropriate course of management for this lady?
- A. Commence her on combination therapy of three oral hypoglycaemic agents
- B. Motivate her to adhere with life-style modification
- C. Commence her on monotherapy of oral hypoglycaemic agent
- D. Commence her on combination therapy of two oral hypoglycaemic agents
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: New type 2, fasting 12 lifestyle's fresh, so metformin monotherapy starts, easing glucose without overload. Triple or dual oral's too much; insulin's for later; pushing lifestyle alone won't cut it yet. Nurses build this chronic base, balancing effort and meds.