Nokea
The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include
- A. Observation
- B. Hyperextension casting
- C. Jewett brace
- D. Surgical intervention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Observation. As an AGACNP, observation is crucial for monitoring the progression of the condition before considering any invasive treatments. Hyperextension casting (B) and Jewett brace (C) are more specific interventions for spinal conditions and not typically indicated for this scenario. Surgical intervention (D) is typically considered only if conservative treatments fail, making it a last resort option. Therefore, observation allows for a conservative approach to assess the patient's response to initial management before considering more aggressive interventions.
You may also like to solve these questions
Fetal indications for cesarean section include
- A. Impacted face presentation, shoulder presentation, locked twins.
- B. Impacted face presentation, severe pre-eclampsia, locked twins.
- C. Cephalo-pelvic disproportion, shoulder presentation, locked twins.
- D. Cephalo-pelvic disproportion, impacted face presentation, locked twins.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because fetal indications for cesarean section typically involve situations where the baby cannot safely be delivered vaginally. Cephalo-pelvic disproportion means the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis, necessitating a C-section. Impacted face presentation can result in difficulty during delivery, also requiring a C-section. Locked twins refer to a situation where the babies are unable to move past each other during delivery, further indicating the need for a C-section. Choices A, B, and C include some relevant indications for a C-section, but they do not encompass the full range of fetal indications like choice D does.
Complications of uterine rupture:
- A. Hemorrhage, uterine atony, infection, peritonitis
- B. Preterm labor, cord prolapse, uterine prolapse
- C. Fetal distress, placental abruption, uterine rupture
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because uterine rupture can lead to severe complications such as hemorrhage from blood vessels tearing, uterine atony causing failure of the uterus to contract, infection due to exposure of internal tissues, and peritonitis from inflammation of the abdominal lining. Choices B and C are incorrect as they list complications that are not directly associated with uterine rupture. Preterm labor, cord prolapse, uterine prolapse, fetal distress, placental abruption are potential consequences of other obstetric complications but not specifically uterine rupture. Therefore, choice A is the most appropriate answer given the context of uterine rupture.
Cardiac disease grade 1 is also known as
- A. Organic disease
- B. Mitral stenosis
- C. Ventricular failure
- D. Vascular disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Grade 1 cardiac disease refers to early-stage or mild heart conditions that are not yet severe. Choice A, "Organic disease," is the correct answer as it encompasses a broad category of structural heart abnormalities. Mitral stenosis (B) and ventricular failure (C) are specific conditions that can be present in cardiac disease but do not represent the general term for grade 1. Vascular disease (D) primarily refers to conditions affecting blood vessels, not the heart itself. In summary, choice A is correct because it is a comprehensive term that includes various structural heart abnormalities typically found in grade 1 cardiac disease, while the other choices are either too specific or unrelated to the concept of grade 1 cardiac disease.
What are the risks of a VBAC (vaginal birth after cesarean)?
- A. Uterine rupture
- B. Postpartum hemorrhage
- C. Placenta previa
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uterine rupture. This is the most significant risk associated with VBAC, where the scar from the previous cesarean section may tear during labor. This can lead to severe complications for both the mother and baby. Postpartum hemorrhage (B) and placenta previa (C) are potential risks in any pregnancy but are not specifically increased in VBAC. Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it directly relates to the unique risk of VBAC.
Causes of Down syndrome are
- A. Trisomy, deletion and non-disjunction
- B. Mosaicism, duplication and translocation
- C. Translocation, mosaicism and deletion
- D. Mosaicism, trisomy and translocation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Down syndrome is primarily caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. This means there is an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to the characteristic features of the syndrome. Mosaicism and translocation of chromosome 21 can also result in Down syndrome, albeit less frequently. Option A includes deletion, which is not a common cause of Down syndrome. Option B lists duplication, which is not a typical mechanism for Down syndrome. Option C includes deletion and mosaicism, but trisomy is the main cause of Down syndrome, making option D the most accurate choice.