Nokea
The BMI that does NOT INCREASE the risk of renal disease and CKD is X. What is X?
- A. 25 or more
- B. 30 or more
- C. 35 or more
- D. 40 or more
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Body Mass Index (BMI) correlates with chronic kidney disease (CKD) risk, with higher values linked to increased incidence due to obesity-related glomerular hypertension and inflammation. A BMI of 25 or more defines overweight and obesity, elevating CKD risk, though 18.5-24.9 is the range typically not increasing risk. The question's phrasing implies the threshold where risk begins, making 25 or more the level where renal disease risk rises, per studies like the Framingham Heart Study. Higher BMIs (30+, 35+, 40+) progressively worsen risk, with 30 marking obesity. Thus, 25 or more is the correct cutoff, guiding family physicians in counseling patients on weight management to prevent CKD onset.
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Which of the following statements regarding weight regulation is FALSE?
- A. Functional MRI (fMRI) studies have shown overactivation of reward-encoding brain regions and/or deficiency in cortical inhibitory networks in obese people
- B. The homeostatic weight regulation circuitry centres around the corticolimbic structures of the brain
- C. Liking and wanting of food are subconscious processes
- D. The reward system of weight regulation is nonhomeostatic in nature
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Weight regulation involves homeostatic (hypothalamic) and nonhomeostatic (reward-driven) systems. fMRI studies showing reward region overactivation in obesity, subconscious liking/wanting, and the reward system's nonhomeostatic nature are true. However, homeostatic regulation centers on the hypothalamus, not corticolimbic structures (involved in reward/emotion), making this false. Understanding this distinction aids physicians in addressing both physiological and behavioral drivers in chronic obesity management.
A 7-year-old child with osteosarcoma is being treated with chemotherapy. Which medication would the nurse expect the physician to order most commonly as a prophylaxis against Pneumocystis jirovecii?
- A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- B. Ketoconazole
- C. Filgastim
- D. Prednisone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Osteosarcoma chemotherapy compromises the immune system, increasing susceptibility to opportunistic infections like Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP), a serious risk in immunocompromised children. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is the most common prophylactic antibiotic for PCP, effectively preventing this lung infection by targeting its causative organism. Ketoconazole treats fungal infections but not PCP, which is caused by a fungus-like organism requiring specific therapy. Filgrastim stimulates neutrophil production to combat neutropenia, not PCP directly. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, suppresses immunity and reduces tumor-related edema but doesn't prevent infections and may increase risk. The nurse anticipates TMP-SMX due to its established role in pediatric oncology protocols, ensuring protection against a preventable, potentially fatal complication during chemotherapy.
A nurse is caring for a client who presented to the emergency department with complaints of fatigue, palpitations, and chest pains. Upon assessment, the provider notes an S3 and S4 gallop, weak peripheral pulses, and tachycardia. The provider orders a chest x-ray and echocardiogram, which reveals left ventricular dilation. Which of the following disorder is consistent with these findings?
- A. Cardiac tamponade
- B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- C. Pericarditis
- D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Left ventricular dilation with S3, S4, weak pulses, and tachycardia paints dilated cardiomyopathy heart muscle stretches, weakening pump, causing fatigue and palpitations. Tamponade compresses, not dilates. Pericarditis inflames without dilation. Restrictive stiffens, resisting stretch. Nurses tie this to DCM's systolic flop, anticipating meds like ACE inhibitors, a fit for this stretched-out heart.
Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care for a client returning to the surgical unit following a left modified radical mastectomy with dissection of axillary lymph nodes?
- A. Obtain permanent breast prosthesis before the patient is discharged from the hospital
- B. Teach the patient to use the ordered patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) every 10 minutes
- C. Place a pink bracelet on the client warning against venipunctures or blood pressures in the left arm
- D. Insist that the patient examine the surgical incision when the initial dressings are removed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Mastectomy with axillary dissection risks lymphedema a pink bracelet flags the left arm, barring venipuncture or BP cuffs to prevent swelling, a priority in post-op care. Prosthesis comes later, post-healing. PCA teaching avoids rigid timing PRN's key. Forcing incision checks risks distress, not healing. Nurses lock in this bracelet, safeguarding lymph flow, a must-do in this surgical aftermath to dodge chronic arm woes.
When conventional routes of analgesia have been unsuccessful or are contraindicated for chronic pain syndromes, intrathecal drug delivery systems may be considered. Appropriate indications are likely to include:
- A. Patients with cancer-related pain in whom life expectancy is estimated to be >3 months.
- B. Chronic pancreatitis.
- C. Haematuria loin pain syndrome.
- D. Chronic low back pain.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intrathecal drug delivery systems (IDDS) treat severe, refractory pain. Cancer pain with >3 months life expectancy justifies IDDS, balancing implantation risks with prolonged benefit shorter expectancy favors simpler methods. Chronic pancreatitis may respond, but evidence is weaker; it's not a primary indication. Haematuria loin pain syndrome (loin pain haematuria syndrome) is niche, rarely managed with IDDS due to limited data. Chronic low back pain often fails conservative treatment, but IDDS is reserved for extreme cases (e.g., failed back surgery syndrome), not routine. Chronic refractory angina is cardiac, not typically IDDS-eligible. Cancer pain's prevalence, severity, and responsiveness to intrathecal opioids/ziconotide make it the clearest indication, optimizing quality of life in palliative care.