Nokea
The Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for all of the following patients except those with
- A. GCS of 3 to 8 and abnormal head CT
- B. GCS of 3 to 8 and hypotension
- C. GCS of 3 to 8 and > 40 years old
- D. GCS of 3 to 8 and bradycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for patients with traumatic brain injury and a GCS of 3 to 8, regardless of the head CT findings. Intracranial pressure monitoring helps in the management of elevated intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. Abnormal head CT findings may indicate the need for immediate intervention, but intracranial pressure monitoring is still recommended for all patients in this GCS range to guide treatment decisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, age > 40 years old, and bradycardia are not factors that would exclude a patient from needing intracranial pressure monitoring in the presence of a GCS of 3 to 8.
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During induction of labor with syntocinon, drops increase is stopped prematurely on
- A. Achieving three moderate contractions
- B. Realizing normal maternal observations
- C. Achieving progressive cervical dilatation
- D. Observing normal fetal-related observations
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C:
1. Progressive cervical dilatation indicates effective labor progress.
2. Stopping the syntocinon drops prematurely allows natural labor progression.
3. Prematurely stopping drops before reaching full dilation may hinder labor.
4. Achieving cervical dilatation is a crucial indicator for successful labor.
Summary:
A: Contractions should be strong, not just moderate.
B: Maternal observations alone do not determine labor progress.
D: Fetal-related observations are important but not the primary indicator for stopping drops.
Mrs. Jenner is a 41-year-old female who is being evaluated for persistent nausea. She had an abdominal CT scan that reported three hepatic hemangiomas ranging from 3 to 5 cm. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response to this report is to
- A. Arrange for large-bore needle biopsy
- B. Order hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression
- C. Consult surgery for resection
- D. Document the finding in the patient’s chart
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
A needle biopsy is appropriate for definitive diagnosis of hepatic hemangiomas, ruling out other liver lesions. It helps determine if they are benign or malignant. This will guide further management decisions.
Summary:
B: Annual ultrasound is unnecessary for benign hemangiomas.
C: Surgery is not indicated for asymptomatic hepatic hemangiomas.
D: Documenting the finding is important but not the appropriate next step in management.
The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is
- A. Phenobarbitone
- B. Magnesium sulphate
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice for managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant and smooth muscle relaxant, helping to prevent further seizures. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (C) is used to counteract calcium channel blocker toxicity, not for eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to treat metabolic acidosis, not eclampsia.
In myelodysplastic syndromes, the primary indications for splenectomy include
- A. Major hemolysis unresponsive to medical management
- B. Severe symptoms of massive splenomegaly
- C. Sustained leukocyte elevation above 30,000 cells/µL
- D. Portal hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In myelodysplastic syndromes, splenectomy is indicated for sustained leukocyte elevation above 30,000 cells/µL to manage symptomatic splenomegaly and cytopenias. This is because an enlarged spleen can sequester and destroy blood cells, leading to low blood cell counts. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as splenectomy is not typically indicated for major hemolysis unresponsive to medical management, severe symptoms of massive splenomegaly, or portal hypertension in the context of myelodysplastic syndromes.
Inability to eat or retain feeds throughout the day prenatally is highly associated with
- A. Weight gain control
- B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- C. Morning sickness
- D. Presence of preeclampsia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperemesis gravidarum. This condition is characterized by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to inability to eat or retain feeds. It is associated with significant weight loss and dehydration. Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Weight gain control is not the primary concern when hyperemesis gravidarum is present.
C: Morning sickness typically does not cause severe inability to eat or retain feeds.
D: Preeclampsia is a separate condition characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage, not directly related to feeding difficulties.