Nokea
The client calls the nurse and states she has not had a menstrual cycle in 3 months. What does the nurse know is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Pregnancy
- C. Cancer
- D. Menopause
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pregnancy. In the case of secondary amenorrhea, where a woman stops menstruating after previously having regular cycles, pregnancy is the most common cause. Pregnancy leads to a halt in the menstrual cycle due to hormonal changes to support the developing fetus. Other choices are incorrect: A) Weight loss can affect menstruation but is not the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea. C) Cancer can also disrupt the menstrual cycle, but it is not the primary cause in this scenario. D) Menopause typically occurs in women in their late 40s to early 50s, and would not be the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a younger woman.
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A client who has been diagnosed with HIV develops an oral candida infection. When teaching the client, which instructions will the health care provider include?
- A. Rinse your mouth often with a commercial mouthwash.
- B. Include plenty of citrus juices in your diet.
- C. Select foods that are soft or pureed.
- D. Include hot soups and beverages with each meal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Select foods that are soft or pureed. This is because soft or pureed foods are easier to swallow and less likely to irritate the oral mucosa affected by the candida infection. Rinsing with a commercial mouthwash (choice A) may temporarily relieve symptoms but won't address the root cause. Citrus juices (choice B) can be irritating to the oral mucosa. Hot soups and beverages (choice D) can worsen the discomfort in the mouth. Overall, choosing soft or pureed foods will help alleviate discomfort and promote healing.
A male client is being seen by a physician at a community clinic regarding a painless ulcer on his penis. The provider will be communicating his diagnosis of syphilis and prescribing treatment. In the primary stage of syphilis, what is the time between infection and development of symptoms?
- A. 7 days
- B. 10 days
- C. 21 days
- D. 35 days
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 21 days. The primary stage of syphilis typically occurs around 21 days after infection when a painless ulcer, known as a chancre, appears at the site of infection. This is due to the multiplication of the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Choice A (7 days) is too short for the development of symptoms. Choice B (10 days) is also too short. Choice D (35 days) is too long for the primary stage of syphilis.
Which statement by the client indicates further teaching is needed about uterine cancer?
- A. A Pap test is used to diagnose uterine cancer.
- B. Uterine cancer is the most common cancer of the reproductive tract.
- C. I used estrogen for 2 years without progesterone. This puts me at risk for developing uterine cancer.
- D. Postmenopausal bleeding could indicate uterine cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a Pap test is used to detect cervical cancer, not uterine cancer.
1. A Pap test screens for cervical cancer by detecting abnormal cells in the cervix.
2. Uterine cancer is the most common cancer of the reproductive tract, making choice B accurate.
3. Choice C is correct as using estrogen without progesterone can increase uterine cancer risk.
4. Choice D is also accurate as postmenopausal bleeding can be a symptom of uterine cancer.
In summary, the need for further teaching arises from the misconception that a Pap test can diagnose uterine cancer.
According to the standard staging classification for breast cancer, which criteria reflects stage 2 breast cancer?
- A. Tumor smaller than 2 cm, no regional lymph node metastasis, no distant metastasis
- B. No evidence of tumor; metastasis to lymph nodes fixed to one another or to other structure but no distant metastasis
- C. Tumor larger than 5 cm; metastasis to lymph nodes fixed to one another or to other structure; no distant metastasis
- D. Tumor larger than 2 to 5 cm; no regional lymph node metastasis; no distant metastasis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it aligns with the criteria for stage 2 breast cancer in the standard staging classification. In stage 2, the tumor is typically larger than 2 cm but not larger than 5 cm, there is no regional lymph node metastasis, and there are no distant metastases. Option A is incorrect because the tumor size is smaller than 2 cm, which does not meet the criteria for stage 2. Option B is incorrect as it describes no evidence of tumor with lymph node metastasis, which does not represent stage 2. Option C is incorrect as the tumor size is larger than 5 cm, exceeding the criteria for stage 2.
The nurse is assessing a client who has a suspected cystocele. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse expect? Select all that apply.
- A. Frequent bladder infections
- B. Sense of fullness in the vaginal area
- C. Leaking of urine
- D. Irregular vaginal bleeding
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Irregular vaginal bleeding. A cystocele is a condition where the bladder protrudes into the vagina. This can cause pressure on surrounding tissues and lead to irregular vaginal bleeding. A, B, and C are incorrect as they are more commonly associated with other conditions such as urinary tract infections (A), pelvic organ prolapse (B), and urinary incontinence (C). Irregular vaginal bleeding is a key sign specific to cystocele due to the physical displacement of organs.