Nokea
Which is a constellation of physical and psychological symptoms beginning in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and followed by a symptom-free period?
- A. Endometriosis
- B. Abnormal uterine bleeding
- C. Premenstrual syndrome
- D. Depression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) occurs in the luteal phase due to hormonal changes.
2. PMS includes physical and psychological symptoms.
3. It is followed by a symptom-free period (during menstruation).
4. Endometriosis is a separate condition involving tissue growth outside the uterus.
5. Abnormal uterine bleeding refers to irregular bleeding patterns.
6. Depression is a mental health condition not specific to the menstrual cycle.
Summary:
PMS is the correct answer as it aligns with the timing, symptoms, and pattern described in the question. Endometriosis, abnormal uterine bleeding, and depression do not fully match the criteria provided.
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A 58-year-old woman tells the nurse that she has started to experience pain during intercourse. The nurse should document that this woman is experiencing which of the following?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Dyspareunia
- C. Dyspepsia
- D. Dysmenorrhea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspareunia. Dyspareunia refers to pain during or after sexual intercourse. In this case, the woman is experiencing pain during intercourse, which aligns with the definition of dyspareunia. Dyspnea (A) is difficulty breathing, dyspepsia (C) is indigestion, and dysmenorrhea (D) is painful menstruation, none of which are related to pain during intercourse.
A woman has been diagnosed with single intraductal papilloma and has nipple discharge. Which diagnostic tests will most likely be required?
- A. MRI
- B. Mammogram
- C. Core needle biopsy
- D. Ductogram
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ductogram. In a patient with single intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge, a ductogram is the most appropriate diagnostic test to visualize the ductal system for any abnormalities. A ductogram involves injecting contrast dye into the affected duct to identify any blockages or abnormalities. This test helps in determining the extent of the papilloma and planning appropriate treatment.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
A: MRI - While MRI can provide detailed images, it is not the primary test for evaluating intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge.
B: Mammogram - Mammogram is used for breast imaging but may not provide detailed visualization of the ductal system.
C: Core needle biopsy - While a biopsy may be needed to confirm the papilloma, it does not directly assess the ductal system for other abnormalities.
The nurse is providing care to a child with Down syndrome. What body system has the highest risk of congenital anomaly in a child with Down syndrome?
- A. Reproductive system
- B. Genitourinary system
- C. Cardiovascular system
- D. Gastrointestinal system
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiovascular system. Children with Down syndrome have a high risk of congenital heart defects. This is due to the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, which can lead to abnormalities in heart development. The most common heart defects include atrioventricular septal defects, ventricular septal defects, and atrial septal defects. These defects can affect the structure and function of the heart, leading to potential complications.
Summary:
A: Reproductive system - Not typically associated with congenital anomalies in Down syndrome.
B: Genitourinary system - Not typically associated with congenital anomalies in Down syndrome.
D: Gastrointestinal system - While gastrointestinal anomalies can occur in children with Down syndrome, the cardiovascular system has a higher risk of congenital anomalies.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a 16-year-old female client experiencing her first outbreak of genital herpes. The client states that she contracted the disease by holding hands with someone who has syphilis. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Acute pain related to the development of genital lesions
- B. Lack of knowledge about the disease and its transmission
- C. Ineffective coping related to the increased stress associated with the infection
- D. Noncompliance with treatment related to age of the client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lack of knowledge about the disease and its transmission. This is the priority nursing diagnosis because the client's statement about contracting herpes by holding hands with someone who has syphilis indicates a lack of understanding about how genital herpes is transmitted. The nurse should prioritize educating the client about the disease, its transmission, and prevention to empower the client to make informed decisions about her health.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect:
A: Acute pain may be a symptom of genital herpes, but addressing the lack of knowledge about the disease and its transmission is more essential for the client's well-being.
C: While coping with the stress of the infection is important, addressing the lack of knowledge should take precedence to prevent further transmission and help the client manage the condition effectively.
D: Noncompliance with treatment may be a concern, but addressing the client's lack of knowledge about the disease and its transmission is crucial in promoting understanding and adherence to treatment.
Most congenital anomalies of the central nervous system (CNS) result from defects in the closure of the neural tube during fetal development. Which factor has the greatest impact on this process?
- A. Maternal diabetes
- B. Maternal folic acid deficiency
- C. Socioeconomic status
- D. Maternal use of anticonvulsant
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maternal folic acid deficiency. Folic acid is essential for neural tube closure. Deficiency can lead to neural tube defects in the fetus. Maternal diabetes (choice A) can increase the risk, but it's not the primary factor. Socioeconomic status (choice C) may indirectly impact nutrition but isn't directly related to neural tube closure. Maternal use of anticonvulsants (choice D) can increase the risk, but it's not as significant as folic acid deficiency in neural tube closure.