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A patient requires neuromuscular blockade (NMB) as part of treatment of refractive increased intracranial pressure. The nursing care for this patient includes which interventions? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Administration of sedatives concurrently with neuromuscular blockade.
- B. Dangling the patient’s feet over the edge of the bed an d assisting the patient to sit up in a chair at least twice each day.
- C. Ensuring that deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis is initi ated.
- D. providing interventions for eye care, oral care, and skin care.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ensuring that deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis is initiated. When a patient requires neuromuscular blockade for increased intracranial pressure, they are likely immobile, which increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Initiating DVT prophylaxis, such as compression stockings or anticoagulant therapy, helps prevent blood clot formation.
Choice A is incorrect because sedatives can mask signs of neurologic deterioration in this patient population. Choice B is incorrect as it promotes activities that may increase intracranial pressure and could be harmful. Choice D, while important for overall patient care, is not directly related to the specific nursing interventions required for a patient receiving neuromuscular blockade for increased intracranial pressure.
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After a change-of-shift report on a ventilator weaning unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. Patient who failed a spontaneous breathing trial and has been placed in rest mode on the ventilator.
- B. Patient who is intubated and has continuous partial pressure end-tidal CO2 (PETCO2) monitoring.
- C. Patient with central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2) of 69% while on bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP).
- D. Patient who was successfully weaned and extubated 4 hours ago and now has no urine output for the last 6 hours.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Patient who was successfully weaned and extubated 4 hours ago and now has no urine output for the last 6 hours. This patient should be assessed first because the absence of urine output for 6 hours after being extubated could indicate acute kidney injury or other serious complications that need immediate attention. Urine output is a crucial indicator of renal function and can reflect the patient's overall hemodynamic status. In contrast, the other choices do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Choice A involves a patient in rest mode post-failed breathing trial, which does not require immediate assessment. Choice B mentions continuous PETCO2 monitoring, which is important but not as urgent as assessing a patient with no urine output. Choice C describes a patient with a ScvO2 of 69%, which may need monitoring but does not indicate an urgent priority compared to assessing a patient with no urine output after recent extubation.
While caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery cathete r, the nurse notes the pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) to be significantly higher than previously recorded values. The nurse assesses respirations to be unlabored at 16 breat hs/min, oxygen saturation of 98% on 3 L of oxygen via nasal cannula, and lungs clear to auscultation bilaterally. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Increase supplemental oxygen and notify respiratory therapy.
- B. Notify the physician immediately of the assessment fin dings.
- C. Obtain a stat chest x-ray film to verify proper catheter placement.
- D. Zero reference and level the catheter at the phlebostati
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the physician immediately of the assessment findings. The significantly higher PAOP could indicate a potential complication or a change in the patient's condition that needs immediate medical attention. By notifying the physician, further assessment and interventions can be initiated promptly to address the underlying cause. Increasing supplemental oxygen (choice A) may not directly address the elevated PAOP, obtaining a chest x-ray (choice C) may delay urgent intervention, and zero referencing the catheter (choice D) is not a priority in this situation. Notifying the physician ensures timely and appropriate management of the patient's condition.
A nurse decides to seek certification in critical care nursing. What is the most important benefit for the individual nurse in becoming certified in a specialty?
- A. It will result in a salary increase.
- B. It is required to work in critical care.
- C. It demonstrates the nurses personal expertise.
- D. It is mandated by employers.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because obtaining certification in critical care nursing demonstrates the nurse's personal expertise in the specialty. Certification confirms the nurse's advanced knowledge and skills, enhancing professional credibility and potential for career advancement. This choice focuses on the individual nurse's competency and dedication to the specialty.
Incorrect choices:
A: Salary increase is not the primary benefit of certification, although it may be a potential outcome.
B: Certification is often preferred but not always required to work in critical care.
D: Employers may encourage certification, but it is not always mandated.
The nurse calculates the PaO /FiO ratio for the following values: PaO is 78 mm Hg; FiO is 2 2 2 2 6 (60%). What is the outcome and the relationship to the ARDS diagnosing criteria?
- A. 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS
- B. 130; meets criteria for ARDS
- C. 468; normal lung function
- D. Not enough data to compute the ratio
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS. The PaO /FiO ratio is calculated by dividing the arterial oxygen partial pressure (PaO) by the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO). In this case, PaO is 78 mm Hg and FiO is 0.6 (60%). Therefore, the calculation would be 78/0.6 = 130. This value is less than 300, which is indicative of ARDS according to the Berlin criteria. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the criteria for ARDS. Choice D is incorrect because the data provided is sufficient to compute the ratio.
The nurse aware that a shortage of organs exists knows that which statement is true?
- A. Anyone who is comfortable approaching the family sh ould discuss the option of organ donation.
- B. Brain death determination is required before organs ca n be retrieved for transplant.
- C. Donation of selected organs after cardiac death is ethically acceptable.
- D. Family members should consider withdrawing life supapboirbrt.c osmo /ttehsat t the patient can become an organ donor.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (B - Brain death determination is required before organs can be retrieved for transplant):
1. Brain death determination is a medical necessity to ensure the organs are viable for transplant.
2. Organs must be retrieved promptly after brain death to maintain their functionality.
3. Brain death criteria ensure that the donor is truly deceased before organ retrieval.
Summary of Why Other Choices are Incorrect:
A: While discussing organ donation is important, comfort level is not the main factor in organ shortage awareness.
C: Donation after cardiac death is ethically acceptable, but it is not directly related to the need for brain death determination.
D: Withdrawing life support solely to become an organ donor is ethically questionable and not a necessary step in organ donation.