Nokea
The client received Narcan, a narcotic antagonist, following a colonoscopy. Which action by the nurse has the highest priority?
- A. Document the occurrence in the nurse's notes.
- B. Prepare to administer narcotic medication IV.
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- D. Assess the client every 15 to 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Narcan reverses opioids but has a short half-life; frequent assessment (15–30 min) monitors for re-sedation or respiratory depression, the priority.
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The client is diagnosed with essential hypertension and is receiving a calcium channel blocker. Which assessment data would warrant the nurse holding the client's medication?
- A. The client's oral temperature is 102°F.
- B. The client complains of a dry, nonproductive cough.
- C. The client's blood pressure reading is 106/76.
- D. The client complains of being dizzy when getting out of bed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dizziness on standing suggests orthostatic hypotension, a calcium channel blocker side effect, warranting holding the dose to prevent falls. Fever, cough, or BP are less critical.
The client in the intensive care department is receiving 2 mcg/kg/min of dopamine, an inotropic vasopressor. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every two (2) hours.
- B. Assess the client's peripheral pulses every shift.
- C. Use a urometer to assess hourly output.
- D. Ensure the IV tubing is not exposed to the light.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dopamine affects renal perfusion; hourly urine output via urometer monitors efficacy and prevents toxicity. BP, pulses, or light exposure are less critical.
A client newly diagnosed with Type I Diabetes Mellitus asks the purpose of the test measuring glycosylated hemoglobin. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this test is to determine:
- A. The presence of anemia often associated with Diabetes
- B. The oxygen carrying capacity of the client's red cells
- C. The average blood glucose for the past 2-3 months
- D. The client's risk for cardiac complications
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The average blood glucose for the past 2-3 months. By testing the portion of the hemoglobin that absorbs glucose, it is possible to determine the average blood glucose over the life span of the red cell, 120 days.
The client with coronary artery disease is prescribed one (1) baby aspirin a day. Which instructions should the nurse provide the client concerning this medication?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Do not take Tylenol while taking this drug.
- C. If experiencing joint pain, notify the HCP.
- D. Notify the HCP if stools become dark and tarry.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dark, tarry stools suggest GI bleeding, a serious aspirin side effect, requiring HCP notification. Empty stomach, Tylenol, or joint pain are less critical.
The client is receiving atropine, an anticholinergic, to minimize the side effects of routine medications. Which intervention will help the client tolerate this medication?
- A. Teach the client about orthostatic hypotension.
- B. Instruct the client to eat a low-residue diet.
- C. Encourage the client to chew sugarless gum.
- D. Discuss the importance of daily isometric exercises.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Atropine causes dry mouth; sugarless gum stimulates saliva, improving tolerance. Hypotension, diet, or exercises are unrelated.