Nokea
The client with osteoarthritis is prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Time the medication to be given with meals.
- B. Notify the HCP if abdominal striae develop.
- C. Do not administer if oral temperature is greater than 102°F.
- D. Monitor the liver function tests and renal studies.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: NSAIDs with meals reduce GI irritation, a common side effect. Striae, fever, or lab monitoring are less immediate concerns.
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Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor for the client receiving the intravenous steroid Solu-Medrol?
- A. Potassium level.
- B. Sputum culture and sensitivity.
- C. Glucose level.
- D. Arterial blood gases.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Solu-Medrol (methylprednisolone) can cause hyperglycemia, requiring glucose monitoring, especially IV. Potassium, sputum, or ABGs are less directly affected.
The male client with a chronic urinary tract infection is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). Which statement indicates the client needs more teaching?
- A. I will drink six (6) to eight (8) glasses of water a day.
- B. I am going to have to take this medication forever.
- C. I can stop taking this medication if there is no more burning.
- D. I may get diarrhea with this medication, but I can take Imodium.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stopping Bactrim when symptoms resolve risks incomplete treatment and resistance; full course is needed. Hydration, duration, and diarrhea management are correct.
The client diagnosed with migraine headaches is prescribed propranolol (Inderal), a beta blocker, for prophylaxis. Which information should the nurse teach the client?
- A. Instruct to take the medication at the first sign of headache.
- B. Teach the client to take his or her radial pulse for one (1) minute.
- C. Explain this drug may make the client thirsty and have a dry mouth.
- D. Discuss the need to increase artificial light in the home.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Propranolol can cause bradycardia; teaching pulse monitoring ensures safety. It’s prophylactic, not acute, and dry mouth or lighting are unrelated.
A 6-year-old child is seen in the emergency room after stepping on a rusty nail. He has received no immunizations. What should the nurse expect to give him immediately to prevent a tetanus infection?
- A. Tetanus toxoid
- B. DTaP
- C. Immune serum globulin
- D. Penicillin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Immune serum globulin provides immediate passive immunity against tetanus in an unimmunized child.
The client is receiving atropine, an anticholinergic, to minimize the side effects of routine medications. Which intervention will help the client tolerate this medication?
- A. Teach the client about orthostatic hypotension.
- B. Instruct the client to eat a low-residue diet.
- C. Encourage the client to chew sugarless gum.
- D. Discuss the importance of daily isometric exercises.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Atropine causes dry mouth; sugarless gum stimulates saliva, improving tolerance. Hypotension, diet, or exercises are unrelated.