Proctored Pharmacology ATI

Proctored Pharmacology ATI Related

Review Proctored Pharmacology ATI related questions and content

The client receives albuterol (Proventil) via inhaler. He asks the nurse why he can't just take a pill. What is the best response by the nurse?

  • A. When you inhale the drug the blood supply in your lungs picks it up rapidly, resulting in quicker effects.'
  • B. Because pills cannot help your illness; you must have inhaled medications for relief of symptoms.'
  • C. Because pills would produce too many side effects; you will have very few side effects with inhaled medications.'
  • D. Because pills are less effective than inhalers for your condition.'
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Albuterol, a bronchodilator for asthma or COPD, is inhaled to target lung airways directly. Choice A explains that inhalation allows rapid absorption via the lungs' rich blood supply, providing quicker relief (within minutes) compared to oral pills, which undergo slower gastrointestinal absorption. Choice B falsely claims pills can't help; oral bronchodilators exist but act slower. Choice C exaggerates side effect differences; inhaled albuterol minimizes systemic effects, but pills aren't inherently riskier. Choice D oversimplifies efficacy without context. The nurse's best response (A) accurately addresses the patient's question with pharmacokinetic reasoning, enhancing understanding and compliance.

You may also like to solve these questions

At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

  • A. Over 1,000 mg
  • B. 750 mg
  • C. Over 1,500 mg
  • D. 150 mg
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

A client has a new prescription for Ondansetron for nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

  • A. Take this medication one hour before chemotherapy.
  • B. You may experience a headache while taking this medication.
  • C. Increase your intake of potassium while taking this medication.
  • D. This medication may cause temporary hearing loss.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is that the client may experience a headache while taking Ondansetron. Headache is a common side effect of this medication, and clients need to be informed about this potential adverse reaction to enhance their understanding and management of side effects.

A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?

  • A. Check the client's vital signs.
  • B. Request a dietitian consult.
  • C. Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal.
  • D. Request an order for an antiemetic.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

A client with Depression has a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply)

  • A. Cough
  • B. Dizziness
  • C. Decreased libido
  • D. B and C
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?

  • A. Swelling of the ankles.
  • B. Increased urination.
  • C. Persistent cough.
  • D. Dark-colored urine.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.

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