Nokea
The client with postmenopausal osteoporosis is prescribed the bisphosphonate alendronate (Fosamax). Which discharge instruction should the nurse discuss with the client?
- A. The medication must be taken with the breakfast meal only.
- B. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking medication.
- C. The tablet should be chewed thoroughly before swallowing.
- D. Stress the importance of having monthly hormone levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alendronate requires upright posture for 30 minutes post-dose to prevent esophageal irritation, per FDA guidelines. Meal timing, chewing, or hormone levels are incorrect.
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A client with an aplastic sickle cell crisis is receiving a blood transfusion and begins to complain of 'feeling hot.' Almost immediately, the client begins to wheeze. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Stop the blood infusion
- B. Notify the health care provider
- C. Take/record vital signs
- D. Send blood samples to lab
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stop the blood infusion. If a reaction of any type is suspected during administration of blood products, stop the infusion immediately, keep the line open with saline, notify the health care provider, monitor vital signs and other changes, and then send a blood sample to the lab.
The 68-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of slurred speech, right-sided weakness, and ataxia. The emergency department physician ordered thrombolytic therapy for the client. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer thrombolytic therapy via protocol.
- B. Send the client for a STAT CT of the head.
- C. Arrange for admission to the intensive care department.
- D. Check to determine if the client is cross sensitive to the thrombolytic.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A STAT head CT rules out hemorrhagic stroke, a contraindication for thrombolytics, and is the first step per stroke guidelines.
A post-operative client has a prescription for acetaminophen with codeine. What should the nurse recognize as a primary effect of this combination?
- A. Enhanced pain relief
- B. Minimized side effects
- C. Prevention of drug tolerance
- D. Increased onset of action
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Enhanced pain relief. Combination of analgesics with different mechanisms of action can afford greater pain relief.
The nurse is administering digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, to the client with congestive heart failure. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
- A. Check the apical heart rate for one (1) full minute.
- B. Monitor the client's serum sodium level.
- C. Teach the client how to take his or her radial pulse.
- D. Evaluate the client's serum digoxin level.
- E. Assess the client for buffalo hump and moon face.
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: Checking apical HR prevents bradycardia, teaching pulse empowers monitoring, and digoxin levels ensure therapeutic range. Sodium or Cushingoid features are irrelevant.
The male client is self-medicating with the H-2 antagonist cimetidine (Tagamet). Which complication can occur while taking this medication?
- A. Melena.
- B. Gynecomastia.
- C. Pyrosis.
- D. Eructation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cimetidine can cause gynecomastia due to antiandrogen effects, especially in males. Melena, pyrosis, or eructation are unrelated.