The current trend toward transitioning NP programs to the doctoral level will mean that:
- A. NPs licensed in one state may practice in other states.
- B. full prescriptive authority will be granted to all NPs with doctoral degrees.
- C. NPs will be better prepared to meet emerging health care needs of patients.
- D. requirements for physician supervision of NPs will be removed in all states.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because doctoral programs aim to better prepare NPs for evolving healthcare needs, per the AACN. Choice A is incorrect as licensure remains state-specific. Choice B is wrong since prescriptive authority depends on state laws. Choice D is inaccurate as supervision rules vary by state.
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The parents of a 3-year-old child tell the primary care NP that their child is a very picky eater and they are worried about the child's nutrition. The NP should recommend:
- A. giving the child a daily multivitamin containing iron.
- B. providing small portions of a variety of foods at each meal.
- C. disciplining the child at mealtimes to ensure proper nutrition.
- D. making sure the child's cereals are fortified with vitamins and minerals.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because offering variety in small portions balances nutrition over time for picky eaters. Choice A is incorrect (multivitamin if variety fails). Choice C is wrong (discipline ineffective). Choice D is inaccurate (fortified cereal not enough).
An NP is caring for a 70-year-old patient who reports having seasonal allergies with severe rhinorrhea. Using the Beers criteria, which of the following medications should the NP recommend for this patient?
- A. Loratadine (Claritin)
- B. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
- C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- D. Chlorpheniramine maleate (Chlorphen 12)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because loratadine is a nonsedating antihistamine, safer for elderly per Beers criteria, unlike the sedating options B, C, and D, which increase fall risk and cognitive impairment in older adults.
Risks associated with polypharmacy include:
- A. Increased adverse drug reactions
- B. Drug-drug interactions
- C. Nonadherence
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because polypharmacy raises ADR risk (more drugs, more side effects), interactions (competing metabolism), and nonadherence (complex regimens), per geriatric studies. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one risk. Choice B is wrong by itself because interactions are just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since nonadherence is only one issue.
An example of a first-dose reaction that may occur includes:
- A. Orthostatic hypotension that does not occur with repeated doses
- B. Purple glove syndrome with phenytoin use
- C. Hemolytic anemia from ceftriaxone use
- D. Contact dermatitis from neomycin use
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because orthostatic hypotension can occur with a first dose of drugs like antihypertensives, subsiding as the body adjusts, a classic first-dose reaction. Choice B is incorrect as purple glove syndrome is a rare phenytoin effect, not first-dose specific. Choice C is wrong because hemolytic anemia is a type II reaction, not first-dose. Choice D is incorrect since contact dermatitis is a delayed, not first-dose, reaction.
Drugs that may cause increased adverse effects in women include:
- A. Lipid-soluble drugs
- B. Water-soluble drugs
- C. Drugs that are highly protein bound
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because women's lower lean mass reduces the volume of distribution for water-soluble drugs, increasing concentrations and ADR risk. Choice A is incorrect as lipid-soluble drugs distribute more in fat, not necessarily causing more ADRs. Choice C is wrong because protein binding isn't sex-specific enough here. Choice D is incorrect since only water-soluble drugs align.
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