Nokea
The domestic roles of women as a housekeeper tend to be
- A. Undervalued
- B. Reversed
- C. Overpaid
- D. Appreciated
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Housekeeping roles are historically undervalued socially and economically.
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What type of antidepressant medication is not frequently used due to its lethality in overdose?
- A. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
- B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
- C. GI upset
- D. Divalproex (Depakote)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs are not frequently used due to their high lethality in overdose. They have a narrow therapeutic index, leading to severe toxicity even at slightly higher doses. In overdose, TCAs can cause life-threatening cardiovascular and central nervous system effects. SSRIs (B) are safer in overdose compared to TCAs. GI upset (C) is a common side effect of many medications, not specifically antidepressants. Divalproex (D) is not an antidepressant medication, but rather a mood stabilizer primarily used in bipolar disorder.
Mrs Wang is a retired teacher and used to take trips on cruise ships with her friends to gamble at the casino. She now goes to the local casino every other day by herself and is preoccupied with gambling. Her problem surfaced when she was caught on the closed circuit camera for trying to steal casino chips. Her husband was at a loss and reports that she keeps talking about gambling and boasts to her friends about the large amounts she places per bet. Her luck has turned for the worse, but she insists on going back to 'recoup' her losses. She has pawned most of her jewelry, stopped seeing her friends, and lies to her family about the amounts she has lost. Mrs Wang has features of a
- A. Social gambler.
- B. At risk gambler.
- C. Problem gambler.
- D. Pathological gambler.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mrs. Wang's preoccupation, theft, financial loss, and deceit indicate pathological gambling, a severe disorder per DSM-5 criteria.
Your patient, who has reported domestic violence, now tells you she is going home with her husband because he has apologized and says he is taking her to Hawaii on a romantic vacation. Which statement best helps you understand her actions?
- A. Her husband has received treatment for anger management.
- B. This is the honeymoon phase of the abuse cycle.
- C. This is the resolution phase of the family crisis.
- D. She mistakenly reported domestic violence.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The honeymoon phase is part of the domestic violence cycle when the abuser shows repentance for his violence. The patient remains hopeful, but without treatment the cycle will continue.
When assessing a patient who has ingested flunitrazepam (Rohypnol), the nurse would expect:
- A. acrophobia
- B. hypothermia
- C. hallucinations
- D. anterograde amnesia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: anterograde amnesia. Flunitrazepam is a benzodiazepine known for causing memory loss, specifically anterograde amnesia, where the person has difficulty forming new memories after ingestion. This is due to the drug's effects on the hippocampus and frontal cortex. Acrophobia (fear of heights), hypothermia, and hallucinations are not typically associated with flunitrazepam ingestion. Therefore, D is the expected outcome when assessing a patient who has ingested flunitrazepam.
A client diagnosed with chronic depression appears sad and joyless when arriving at the mental health clinic for a scheduled appointment. The nurse best assesses the client's mood by:
- A. Observing the client's posture, dress, and hygiene in detail.
- B. Asking, 'You seem very sad and forlorn; are you depressed today?'
- C. Asking, 'On a scale of 0 to 10 with 10 being as happy as you can ever remember being, how do you feel today?'
- D. Observing the way the client interacts with other staff to determine whether the client is demonstrating signs of depression.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it directly assesses the client's self-reported mood level, providing valuable insight into their emotional state. By using a standardized scale, the nurse can quantitatively evaluate the client's mood, allowing for a more accurate assessment.
Choice A is incorrect because assessing posture, dress, and hygiene does not directly assess the client's mood; it provides information on physical appearance.
Choice B is incorrect because asking if the client is depressed is leading and may not elicit an accurate response; it assumes the client's emotional state.
Choice D is incorrect because observing interactions with staff may not accurately reflect the client's mood; it could be influenced by various factors such as social skills or current circumstances.