Nokea
The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is
- A. Phenobarbitone
- B. Magnesium sulphate
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice for managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant and smooth muscle relaxant, helping to prevent further seizures. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (C) is used to counteract calcium channel blocker toxicity, not for eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to treat metabolic acidosis, not eclampsia.
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When caring for a mother following an assisted vaginal delivery, it’s MOST important to remember that
- A. A vacuum extractor is safer than forceps because it causes less trauma to the baby & the mother’s perineum
- B. The baby will develop a cephalhematoma as a result of the instrumentation which is a normal expected outcome
- C. The use of instruments during the birth process is a fairly rare occurrence for women
- D. Additional nursing interventions are needed to ensure an uncomplicated postpartum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because additional nursing interventions are necessary to ensure an uncomplicated postpartum period. After an assisted vaginal delivery, the mother may experience increased pain, perineal trauma, and a higher risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Nursing interventions such as pain management, wound care, monitoring for signs of infection, and emotional support are crucial for the mother's recovery.
A is incorrect because both vacuum extractors and forceps can cause trauma to the baby and mother's perineum, and the safety of one over the other depends on various factors.
B is incorrect as the development of a cephalhematoma is not a normal expected outcome of assisted vaginal delivery and should be monitored and managed appropriately if it occurs.
C is incorrect as the use of instruments during childbirth, while not as common as spontaneous vaginal deliveries, is not rare and can be necessary in certain situations to ensure the safety of the mother and baby.
The PRIORITY health message to share with a client in the recovery room immediately following cesarean section includes
- A. Frequent coughing & deep breathing
- B. Importance of perineal self-care
- C. Importance of early ambulation
- D. Signs of puerperal infections
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Importance of early ambulation. After a cesarean section, early ambulation is crucial to prevent complications like blood clots and promote circulation. It helps prevent post-operative complications. Choice A is important for respiratory health but not the priority right after surgery. Choice B focuses on perineal care which is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is important, but recognizing signs of infection can wait until the client is more stable. Early ambulation is key to preventing complications and aiding in recovery.
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is characterized by underdevelopment of
- A. Pulmonary veins, ventricles and aortic valve
- B. Left ventricle, atrium and pulmonary vessels
- C. Aorta arch, venacava and right atrium
- D. Left ventricle, aortic valve and arch
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because hypoplastic left heart syndrome involves underdevelopment of the left ventricle, aortic valve, and aortic arch. The left ventricle is typically small and unable to adequately pump blood to the body. The aortic valve is often malformed, leading to difficulties in blood flow from the heart to the body. Additionally, the aortic arch may be narrow or underdeveloped, further impacting blood circulation.
Choice A is incorrect as it includes the pulmonary veins, which are not typically affected in hypoplastic left heart syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the left atrium and pulmonary vessels, which are not the primary structures affected in this condition. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions the aorta arch, venacava, and right atrium, which are not primarily associated with hypoplastic left heart syndrome.
Sara S. is a 41-year-old patient who has just had a bone marrow transplant. The AGACNP knows that which medication will be used to decrease her risk of graft-versus-host reaction?
- A. Immune globulin
- B. Cyclosporine
- C. Prophylactic antibiotics
- D. Systemic corticosteroids
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immune globulin. Post bone marrow transplant, immune globulin is used to decrease the risk of graft-versus-host reaction by providing passive immunity. This helps in reducing the chances of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin does not suppress the immune system like cyclosporine (B) or systemic corticosteroids (D) do, which could increase the risk of infections post-transplant. Prophylactic antibiotics (C) are used to prevent infections but do not specifically target graft-versus-host reaction.
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy treatment for cancer is given to facilitate surgical resection. When the outcomes of cancer therapies are evaluated, the terms complete response and partial response often are used. Partial response means that
- A. 50% of the patients treated with a given regimen demonstrate remission
- B. 50% of the patients treated survive to the 5-year point
- C. The tumor mass has reduced by > 50%
- D. In 50% of cases, the tumor converts from unresectable to resectable
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because in the context of neoadjuvant chemotherapy, a partial response means converting an unresectable tumor to a resectable one. This is crucial as it allows for successful surgical removal of the tumor. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately define partial response in the context of cancer therapy. A, stating 50% of patients demonstrating remission, is not specific to the change in resectability. B, mentioning 50% survival at 5 years, is more related to overall survival rather than the response to treatment. C, stating a reduction in tumor mass by >50%, does not necessarily imply a change in resectability status. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate definition of partial response in the given scenario.