Nokea
The following condition is an indication for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
- A. Serene depression
- B. Schizophrenia
- C. Autistic disorders
- D. Tourettes syndrome
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Severe (likely intended as 'serene') depression, especially when treatment-resistant, is a primary indication for ECT due to its rapid efficacy.
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In the UK, the Special Education Needs & Disability Act of 2001 extended the rights of individuals with intellectual disabilities to be educated in mainstream schools. Schools are now required to draw up which of the following in order to facilitate the inclusion of pupils with intellectual disabilities and to make reasonable adjustments so that they are not disadvantaged?
- A. Inclusion strategies
- B. Facilitation strategies
- C. Accessibility strategies
- D. Availability strategies
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Accessibility Strategies: Programmes extending rights of individuals with intellectual disabilities to be educated according to their needs in mainstream schools.
A disorder that interrupts normal sleep patterns and is characterized by repeated, brief jerks of the arms and legs that occur every 20 to 60 seconds during the beginning of sleep is called:
- A. Insomnia.
- B. Narcolepsy.
- C. Hypersomnia.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: None of the above. The disorder described in the question is Periodic Limb Movement Disorder (PLMD), not any of the options provided. PLMD involves involuntary movements during sleep, which are different from the symptoms of insomnia, narcolepsy, or hypersomnia. Insomnia is difficulty falling or staying asleep, narcolepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, and hypersomnia is excessive daytime sleepiness despite getting enough sleep. Therefore, the correct answer is D as none of the provided options accurately describe the specific disorder mentioned in the question.
A patient with acute mania dances atop a pool table, waves a cue in one hand, and says, "I'll throw the pool balls if anyone comes near me." The nurse's first intervention is to:
- A. Tell the patient
- B. ""We are taking you to seclusion.""
- C. Remove the patient from the pool table.
- D. Clear the room of all other patients.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because taking the patient to seclusion ensures safety for both the patient and others. This intervention controls the immediate risk of harm from the patient's unpredictable behavior. Telling the patient (choice A) may escalate the situation. Removing the patient from the pool table (choice C) may not address the underlying threat. Clearing the room of all other patients (choice D) is not the priority; ensuring immediate safety is paramount in this scenario.
During a manic episode, a patient is hyperactive, restless, and disorganized. The patient goes to the dining room and begins to throw food and dishes. Verbal intervention is ineffective. The patient's behavior poses a substantial risk of harm to others. Staff escorts the patient to the patient's room to dine alone. What is the rationale for this action?
- A. Prevent other patients from observing the behavior.
- B. Reduce environmental stimuli that negatively affect the patient.
- C. Protect the patient's biological integrity until medication takes effect.
- D. Reinforce limit setting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce environmental stimuli that negatively affect the patient. This action helps reduce stimulation that may be exacerbating the manic episode, promoting a calmer environment for the patient. Removing the patient from the dining room minimizes triggers for further disruptive behavior. This approach prioritizes the patient's well-being by managing the environmental factors contributing to the escalation of symptoms.
A: Preventing other patients from observing the behavior does not directly address the patient's needs during the manic episode and does not actively help in managing the situation.
C: Protecting the patient's biological integrity until medication takes effect may be important, but in this scenario, the immediate focus is on addressing the environmental factors contributing to the behavior.
D: Reinforcing limit setting is important in managing behavior, but in this specific situation, reducing environmental stimuli is a more immediate and effective intervention.
A 19-year-old client is admitted for the second time in 9 months and is acutely psychotic with a diagnosis of undifferentiated schizophrenia. The client sits alone rubbing her arms and smiling. She tells the nurse her thoughts cause earthquakes and that the world is burning. The nurse assesses the primary deficit associated with the client's condition as:
- A. Altered mood states
- B. Disturbed thinking
- C. Social isolation
- D. Poor impulse control
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disturbed thinking. This is because the client's belief that her thoughts cause earthquakes and the world is burning indicates a break from reality, a hallmark of psychosis in schizophrenia. This demonstrates disorganized and illogical thinking, a key symptom of disturbed thinking. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Altered mood states typically refer to emotional disturbances, which are not the primary deficit in this scenario; C) Social isolation is a consequence of the client's symptoms but not the primary deficit; D) Poor impulse control is not the primary deficit in this case as the client's behavior is more indicative of disorganized thinking.