The generation time of bacteria refers to:
- A. The time for DNA replication
- B. The time for a cell to divide and double in number
- C. The time for spore formation
- D. The time for toxin production
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The generation time of bacteria refers to the time for a cell to divide and double in number. This is because the generation time is the period required for one bacterial cell to undergo binary fission and divide into two identical daughter cells. This process involves DNA replication, followed by cell division, resulting in an increase in the number of bacterial cells.
Incorrect choices:
A: The time for DNA replication - While DNA replication is a crucial part of bacterial growth and reproduction, it does not solely define the generation time.
C: The time for spore formation - Spore formation is a specific process in certain bacteria and is not synonymous with the generation time.
D: The time for toxin production - Toxin production is an independent process in bacteria and does not directly relate to the generation time.
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The term “zone of inhibition†is used in which of the following procedures?
- A. Use-dilution test
- B. Growth inhibition test
- C. Disk-diffusion test
- D. Multiple inhibition test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disk-diffusion test. In the disk-diffusion test, the zone of inhibition refers to the area around an antimicrobial disk where bacterial growth is inhibited. This test is used to determine the susceptibility of bacteria to specific antibiotics. The other choices, such as A: Use-dilution test, B: Growth inhibition test, and D: Multiple inhibition test, do not specifically involve measuring the zone of inhibition and are not commonly used methods for testing antibiotic susceptibility.
Which of the following bacteria is known for causing the disease known as whooping cough?
- A. Bordetella pertussis
- B. Clostridium tetani
- C. Haemophilus influenzae
- D. Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bordetella pertussis. This bacterium is known for causing whooping cough due to its ability to produce toxins that damage the respiratory tract, leading to severe coughing fits. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Haemophilus influenzae can cause respiratory infections but not whooping cough, and Staphylococcus aureus is more commonly associated with skin infections. Therefore, A is the correct choice based on its specific association with the disease in question.
A 47-year-old patient came to see a doctor on the 7th day of disease. The disease developed very fast: after the chill body temperature rose to 40oC and lasted up to 7 hours, then dropped abruptly, which caused profuse sweat. There were three such attacks occur in once in two days. Two days ago the patient arrived from Africa. Objectively: pale skin, subicteric sclera, significantly enlarged liver and spleen. What is the cause of fever attacks in this disease?
- A. Erythrocytic schizogony
- B. Tissue schizogony
- C. Exotoxin of a causative agent
- D. Gametocytes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythrocytic schizogony. In this case, the patient most likely has malaria, specifically caused by Plasmodium falciparum. The fever attacks every 2 days (tertian fever) are characteristic of P. falciparum infection. The cycle of erythrocytic schizogony in P. falciparum is around 48 hours, leading to the recurring fever pattern. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tissue schizogony does not cause the characteristic fever pattern, exotoxins are not typically involved in malaria fever, and gametocytes do not directly cause fever attacks.
After a prolonged isoniazid treatment, the patient developed polyneuritis, paresthesia, memory disorders, and convulsions. What is the most likely mechanism of the described isoniazid side-effects?
- A. Disruption of cell membrane synthesis
- B. Inhibition of protein synthesis
- C. Inhibition of RNA-synthesis
- D. Inhibition of pyridoxal phosphate synthesis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Isoniazid inhibits pyridoxal phosphate synthesis, which is the active form of vitamin B6. Pyridoxal phosphate is essential for various enzymatic reactions, including neurotransmitter synthesis and myelin formation. Therefore, isoniazid-induced pyridoxal phosphate deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms like polyneuritis, paresthesia, memory disorders, and convulsions.
A: Disruption of cell membrane synthesis - This is not the mechanism of isoniazid side-effects.
B: Inhibition of protein synthesis - Isoniazid does not directly inhibit protein synthesis.
C: Inhibition of RNA-synthesis - Isoniazid does not inhibit RNA synthesis; it affects vitamin B6 metabolism.
Bacteria that grow best in high temperatures are called:
- A. Mesophiles
- B. Psychrophiles
- C. Thermophiles
- D. Halophiles
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thermophiles. Thermophiles are bacteria that thrive in high temperatures, typically between 45-80 degrees Celsius. They have adapted to extreme heat environments and have enzymes that function optimally at high temperatures. Mesophiles (A) grow best at moderate temperatures, Psychrophiles (B) thrive in cold temperatures, and Halophiles (D) thrive in high salt concentrations. Therefore, only Thermophiles are specifically adapted to high temperatures, making it the correct choice.