The Hawthorne effect explains that the relationship between people and productivity is enhanced by which of the following?
- A. Special attention
- B. Organizations
- C. Creativity
- D. Groups
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Special attention. The Hawthorne effect states that individuals modify their behavior when they know they are being observed. Providing special attention to individuals can lead to increased productivity as they are more motivated to perform well. This concept emphasizes the importance of personal interactions and recognition in improving productivity.
Summary:
- B: Organizations - While organizations play a role in productivity, the Hawthorne effect focuses on individual behavior rather than organizational structure.
- C: Creativity - While creativity can enhance productivity, the Hawthorne effect specifically highlights the impact of attention and observation on behavior.
- D: Groups - While group dynamics can influence productivity, the Hawthorne effect focuses on individual responses to attention and observation.
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The type of theory that discusses how motivation works to direct a person's efforts is:
- A. Reinforcement.
- B. Operant.
- C. Conditioning.
- D. Process.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Process. Process theories of motivation focus on how individuals initiate, sustain, and direct their behavior towards achieving goals. These theories explore the cognitive processes involved in motivation, such as goal-setting, expectancy, and self-regulation. They highlight the importance of understanding individuals' thought processes and decision-making in driving their efforts.
Rationale:
A: Reinforcement theories primarily focus on how behavior is influenced by consequences, such as rewards and punishments. While reinforcement is a factor in motivation, it does not address the cognitive processes underlying motivation.
B: Operant theories, like reinforcement, concentrate on how behavior is shaped by consequences. However, they do not delve into the internal cognitive processes that drive motivation.
C: Conditioning theories, such as classical and operant conditioning, emphasize how behavior is learned through associations and reinforcements. While conditioning plays a role in shaping behavior, it does not directly address how motivation works to direct efforts based on cognitive processes.
In summary, the correct answer, D
A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient?
- A. Urine dipstick for glucose
- B. Oral glucose tolerance test
- C. Fasting blood glucose level
- D. Glycosylated hemoglobin level
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. This test provides an average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months, reflecting long-term glycemic control. It is preferred for monitoring treatment effectiveness in diabetes. Urine dipstick for glucose (A) only detects current glucose levels in urine, not overall control. Oral glucose tolerance test (B) evaluates how the body processes glucose, not long-term control. Fasting blood glucose level (C) provides a snapshot of blood glucose at a specific moment, not long-term control.
Lippitt's phases of change are important factors in the change process. The phase that involves key people in data collection is known as:
- A. Assess the motivation.
- B. Choose a change agent.
- C. Diagnose the problem.
- D. Maintain the change.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diagnose the problem. In Lippitt's phases of change, this phase involves key people in data collection to identify the root cause of the issue. Assessing motivation (A) comes before diagnosing the problem, choosing a change agent (B) is about selecting a person to lead the change effort, and maintaining the change (D) occurs after implementation. Diagnosing the problem is crucial as it sets the foundation for developing effective strategies to address the identified issues.
A nurse manager is preparing the budget for the year. The budgeted amounts have been set without regard to changes that may occur during the year. What type of budget is the manager preparing?
- A. Fixed budget
- B. Zero-based budget
- C. Variable budget
- D. Operating budget
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fixed budget. A fixed budget is set without considering changes that may occur during the year. It remains unchanged regardless of actual performance. In this scenario, the budgeted amounts are predetermined and do not adjust based on changing conditions. Other choices are incorrect because:
- B: Zero-based budget requires justifying every expense from scratch, not pre-set amounts.
- C: Variable budget adjusts based on activity levels, not predetermined like in this case.
- D: Operating budget encompasses all revenues and expenses, not necessarily fixed like in this scenario.
An RN comes upon a serious motor vehicle accident that has just occurred and no first responders are on the scene. One car has been flipped upside down, and she can see the driver still in the car. The RN decides to stop and help. She knows she is protected from civil liability as long as she does which of the following?
- A. Acts in an ordinary, reasonable, and prudent professional manner
- B. Assures that information obtained is not communicated to anyone else
- C. Does not make any verbal comments that could lead to economic harm
- D. Fails to meet the established standards of practice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acts in an ordinary, reasonable, and prudent professional manner. The RN is protected from civil liability under the Good Samaritan laws when they act in a manner that is considered ordinary, reasonable, and prudent for a healthcare professional in an emergency situation. By stopping to help at the accident scene, the RN is fulfilling their duty to provide aid as a healthcare professional. Choices B and C are incorrect because withholding information or refraining from making certain verbal comments would not protect the RN from liability in this emergency scenario. Choice D is incorrect because failing to meet the established standards of practice would expose the RN to potential liability.