The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?
- A. PT/INR
- B. aPTT
- C. Platelet count
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct lab value to monitor when administering heparin is aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time). This is because heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade, which is reflected in the aPTT value. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent clotting complications. PT/INR and platelet count are not specific to heparin monitoring, and hemoglobin does not directly reflect heparin's anticoagulant effects.
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What procedure uses a catheter to open blocked coronary arteries and improve blood flow to the heart muscle?
- A. Angioplasty
- B. Stent placement
- C. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
- D. Valve replacement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Angioplasty. Angioplasty involves using a catheter with a balloon to open blocked coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. The balloon is inflated to compress the plaque against the artery walls, restoring blood flow. Stent placement (B) involves inserting a mesh tube to keep the artery open after angioplasty. CABG (C) is a surgical procedure that uses grafts to bypass blocked coronary arteries. Valve replacement (D) is a procedure to replace damaged heart valves, not specifically for opening blocked coronary arteries.
Which term conceptualizes that the greater the myocardial fiber stretch, within physiologic limits, the more forceful the ventricular contraction, thereby increasing stroke volume?
- A. Frank-Starling's Law
- B. Automaticity
- C. Contractility
- D. Excitability
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank-Starling's Law. This law states that within physiologic limits, the greater the myocardial fiber stretch, the more forceful the ventricular contraction, leading to increased stroke volume. This is because increased fiber stretch results in optimal overlap of actin and myosin filaments in the sarcomeres, enhancing contractile force.
Summary:
B: Automaticity refers to the ability of cardiac cells to spontaneously generate electrical impulses.
C: Contractility is the intrinsic ability of cardiac muscle to generate force.
D: Excitability refers to the ability of cardiac cells to respond to electrical stimuli.
What is the patient with primary hypertension likely to report?
- A. No symptoms
- B. Cardiac palpitations
- C. Dyspnea on exertion
- D. Dizziness and vertigo
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Primary hypertension often lacks overt symptoms.
At what point in the healing process of the myocardium following an infarct does early scar tissue result in an unstable heart wall?
- A. 2 to 3 days after MI
- B. 4 to 10 days after MI
- C. 10 to 14 days after MI
- D. 6 weeks after MI
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scar tissue forms 4 to 10 days post-MI.
What is a condition where the lungs become stiff and scarred, making it difficult to breathe and get enough oxygen into the bloodstream?
- A. Pulmonary fibrosis
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Pulmonary embolism
- D. Pulmonary hypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pulmonary fibrosis is the correct answer because it is a condition characterized by stiff and scarred lungs, leading to breathing difficulties and reduced oxygen intake. This occurs due to the formation of excessive connective tissue in the lungs, impairing their ability to expand and contract properly. Pulmonary edema is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, not scarring. Pulmonary embolism is the blockage of a blood vessel in the lungs by a blood clot. Pulmonary hypertension is high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs, not related to lung stiffness or scarring.