The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?
- A. Tylenol
- B. Tramadol
- C. Codeine
- D. Morphine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.
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Which of the following strategies should the nurse include when planning care for children of migrant workers?
- A. Delay immunizations due to acute illness.
- B. Provide parents with copies of medical records.
- C. Offer preventive services during acute illness visits.
- D. Emphasize the importance of having one primary care provider.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When planning care for children of migrant workers, providing parents with copies of medical records is essential. This helps ensure continuity of care, especially as migrant families may move frequently. Immunizations should not be delayed due to acute illness; preventive care, including immunizations, should be provided even during acute illness visits to ensure the child stays up to date. While it is important to offer preventive services during routine visits, it is not ideal to provide them only during acute illness visits. Emphasizing the importance of having one primary care provider is valuable in healthcare, but it may not be feasible for migrant families due to their mobility.
The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?
- A. Health promotion
- B. Secondary prevention
- C. Tertiary prevention
- D. Primary prevention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke.
Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia.
Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them.
Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.
A nurse palpates a client’s radial pulse, noting the rate, rhythm, and force, and concludes that the client’s pulse is normal. Which notation would the nurse make in the client’s record to document the force of the client’s pulse?
- A. 4+
- B. 3+
- C. 2+
- D. 1+
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When assessing a pulse, the nurse should note the rhythm, amplitude, and symmetry of pulses and should compare peripheral pulses on the two sides for rate, rhythm, and quality. A 4-point scale may be used to assess the force (amplitude) of the pulse: 4+ for a bounding pulse, 3+ for an increased pulse, 2+ for a normal pulse, and 1+ for a weak pulse. In this case, the nurse would grade the client’s pulse as 2+ based on the description of a normal pulse. Therefore, the correct notation for the force of the client’s pulse is '2+' as it indicates a normal pulse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent different levels of pulse force that do not align with the description given in the scenario.
A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client's skin is very dry. The nurse documents this finding using which term?
- A. Xerosis
- B. Pruritus
- C. Seborrhea
- D. Actinic keratoses
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dry skin is also called xerosis. In this condition, the epidermis lacks moisture or sebum and is often marked by a pattern of fine lines, scaling, and itching. Xerosis is the correct term for very dry skin. Pruritus is the symptom of itching, an uncomfortable sensation that prompts the urge to scratch the skin, but it does not specifically refer to dry skin. Seborrhea is a skin condition characterized by overproduction of sebum, leading to excessive oiliness or dry scales, not necessarily indicating very dry skin. Actinic keratoses are sun-related skin lesions that are premalignant and not associated with dry skin.
A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?
- A. vitiligo
- B. erythema
- C. cyanosis
- D. chloasma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.