The nurse, caring for a client who has been placed in Buck's extension traction while awaiting surgical repair of a fractured femur, should perform a complete neurovascular assessment of the affected extremity that include which interventions? Select all that apply.
- A. Vital signs
- B. Bilateral lung sounds
- C. Pulse in the affected extremity
- D. Level of pain in the affected leg
- E. Skin color of the affected extremity
- F. Capillary refill of the affected toes
Correct Answer: C,D,E,F
Rationale: A complete neurovascular assessment of an extremity includes color, sensation, movement, capillary refill, and pulse of the affected extremity. Options 1 and 2 are not related to neurovascular assessment.
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A client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome has a prescription to be placed on a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) face mask. What intervention should the nurse implement for this procedure to be beneficial?
- A. Obtain baseline arterial blood gases.
- B. Obtain baseline pulse oximetry levels.
- C. Apply the mask to the face with a snug fit.
- D. Remove the mask for deep breathing exercises.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The CPAP face mask must be applied over the nose and mouth with a snug fit, which is necessary to maintain positive pressure in the client's airways. The nurse obtains baseline respiratory assessments and arterial blood gases to evaluate the effectiveness of therapy, but these are not done to increase the effectiveness of the procedure. A disadvantage of the CPAP face mask is that the client must remove it for coughing, eating, or drinking. This removes the benefit of positive pressure in the airway each time it is removed.
The nurse is assisting a client diagnosed with hepatic encephalopathy to fill out the dietary menu. The nurse advises the client to avoid which entree item?
- A. Tomato soup
- B. Fresh fruit plate
- C. Vegetable lasagna
- D. Ground beef patty
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients with hepatic encephalopathy have impaired ability to convert ammonia to urea and must limit intake of protein and ammonia-containing foods in the diet. The client should avoid foods such as chicken, beef, ham, cheese, milk, peanut butter, and gelatin. The food items in options 1, 2, and 3 are acceptable to eat.
The nurse inserts an indwelling Foley catheter into the bladder of a postoperative client who has not voided for 8 hours and has a distended bladder. After the tubing is secured and the collection bag is hung on the bed frame, the nurse notices that 900 mL of urine has drained into the collection bag. What is the appropriate nursing action for the safety of this client?
- A. Check the specific gravity of the urine.
- B. Clamp the tubing for 30 minutes and then release.
- C. Provide suprapubic pressure to maintain a steady flow of urine.
- D. Raise the collection bag high enough to slow the rate of drainage.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rapid emptying of a large volume of urine may cause engorgement of pelvic blood vessels and hypovolemic shock, prolapse of the bladder, or bladder spasms. Clamping the tubing for 30 minutes allows for equilibration to prevent complications. Option 1 is an assessment and would not affect the flow of urine or prevent possible hypovolemic shock. Option 3 would increase the flow of urine, which could lead to hypovolemic shock. Option 4 could cause backflow of urine. Infection is likely to develop if urine is allowed to flow back into the bladder.
An anxious client enters the emergency department seeking treatment for a laceration of the finger. The client's vital signs are pulse 106 beats per minute, blood pressure (BP) 158/88 mm Hg, and respirations 28 breaths per minute. After cleansing the injury and reassuring the client, the nurse rechecks the vital signs and notes a pulse of 82 beats per minute, BP 130/80 mm Hg, and respirations 20 breaths per minute. Which factor likely accounts for the change in vital signs?
- A. Cooling effects of the cleansing agent
- B. Client's adaptation to the air conditioning
- C. Early clinical indicators of cardiogenic shock
- D. Decline in sympathetic nervous system discharge
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Physical or emotional stress triggers sympathetic nervous system stimulation. Increased epinephrine and norepinephrine cause tachycardia, high blood pressure, and tachypnea. Stress reduction then returns these parameters to baseline as the sympathetic discharge falls.
A client was admitted to the hospital 24 hours ago after sustaining blunt chest trauma. Which is the earliest clinical manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Cyanosis with accompanying pallor
- B. Diffuse crackles and rhonchi on chest auscultation
- C. Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to 30 breaths per minute
- D. Haziness or 'white-out' appearance of lungs on chest radiograph
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ARDS usually develops within 24 to 48 hours after an initiating event, such as chest trauma. In most cases, tachypnea and dyspnea are the earliest clinical manifestations as the body compensates for mild hypoxemia through hyperventilation. Cyanosis and pallor are late findings and are the result of severe hypoxemia. Breath sounds in the early stages of ARDS are usually clear but then progress to diffuse crackles and rhonchi as pulmonary edema occurs. Chest radiographic findings may be normal during the early stages but will show diffuse haziness or 'white-out' appearance in the later stages.