The nurse caring for a patient who has tuberculosis and who is taking isoniazid, rifampin, and streptomycin reviews the medical record and notes the patient's sputum cultures reveal resistance to streptomycin. The nurse will expect the provider to order which drug?
- A. Isoniazid (INH)
- B. Pyrazinamide
- C. Rifampin (Rifadin)
- D. Streptomycin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: INH is the prophylactic standard for TB contacts; other drugs aren't typically used alone for this. INH is the drug of choice for prophylactic treatment of patients who have had close contact with a patient who has tuberculosis.
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Treatment goals in prescribing should:
- A. Always be curative
- B. Be patient-centered
- C. Be convenient for the provider
- D. Focus on the cost of therapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patient-centered goals prioritize individual needs and outcomes, not just cure , provider convenience , or cost alone .
To reduce potential adverse effects, patients taking a peripherally acting alpha1 antagonist should do all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Take the dose at bedtime
- B. Sit up slowly and dangle their feet before standing
- C. Monitor their blood pressure and skip a dose if the pressure is less than 120/80
- D. Weigh daily and report weight gain of greater than 2 pounds in one day
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Skipping doses based on blood pressure is not recommended; it risks uncontrolled hypertension.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
- A. Selenium sulfide is used to treat seborrheic dermatitis of scalp
- B. Gamma-benzen hexachloride is effective against scabies
- C. Psoralens are used in the treatment of vitiligo
- D. Tetannic dioxide is an absorbent sunscreen
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Titanium dioxide is a reflective, not absorbent, sunscreen.
Which of the following drugs is considered a first-generation cephalosporin?
- A. Cefepime
- B. Cefazolin
- C. Ceftriaxone
- D. Cephalexin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cefazolin is a first-generation cephalosporin, effective against Gram-positive bacteria, unlike cefepime (fourth) or ceftriaxone (third).
Which of the following create a higher risk for digoxin toxicity? Both the cause and the reason for it must be correct.
- A. Older adults because of reduced renal function
- B. Administration of aldosterone antagonist diuretics because of decreased potassium levels
- C. Taking an antacid for gastroesophageal reflux disease because it increases the absorption of digoxin
- D. Doses between 0.25 and 0.5 mg/day
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Older adults have reduced renal clearance, increasing digoxin toxicity risk.