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The nurse assesses a patient for medical eligibility for contraceptive use. What is the meaning of an MEC score of 1?
- A. There is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method.
- B. There is an unacceptable health risk if the contraceptive method is used.
- C. There is a risk that outweighs the advantages of the contraceptive method.
- D. There is an advantage of using a contraceptive method that outweighs any risk.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of medical eligibility for contraceptive use, an MEC (Medical Eligibility Criteria) score of 1 indicates that there are no restrictions for using the particular contraceptive method. A score of 1 suggests that the advantages of using the contraceptive method outweigh any potential risks, making it a safe and recommended choice for the patient. Therefore, a patient with an MEC score of 1 can use the contraceptive method without any concerns regarding health risks or restrictions.
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Which intervention is most appropriate for a mother with mastitis?
- A. Advise the mother to stop breastfeeding temporarily
- B. Encourage continued breastfeeding
- C. Apply cold compresses to the affected breast
- D. Refer the mother to a lactation consultant
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Continuing breastfeeding helps resolve mastitis by clearing milk ducts.
A client comes to the labor and delivery with polyhydramnios. She was admitted and her membrane ruptures is clear and odorless, but the fetal heart monitor indicate bradycardia and variable decelerations. What should action should be taken next?
- A. Perform vaginal exam (lot of fluid, check to see where baby is)
- B. High fowler position
- C. Warm saline soak vaginal
- D. Perform Leopold maneuver
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, with the presence of polyhydramnios and clear, odorless amniotic fluid, the fetal heart monitor indicating bradycardia and variable decelerations indicates a potential umbilical cord compression due to excessive amniotic fluid volume. It is crucial to perform a vaginal exam promptly as this can help assess the position of the baby and determine if there is a cord prolapse or any other complications that may be affecting the fetal heart rate. The baby's position needs to be identified quickly to address potential issues and ensure a safe delivery process.
The patient's family history includes sickle cell disease. The patient's partner also has sickle cell disease in the family history. What type of test should the nurse discuss with the couple due to their family history?
- A. carrier screening for both parents
- B. ultrasound at 6 weeks’ gestation
- C. glucose screening for both parents
- D. thyroid testing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The nurse is caring for a client with gestational hypertension. What symptom should be reported immediately?
- A. Headache unrelieved by acetaminophen.
- B. Slight swelling of the hands.
- C. Mild nausea after eating.
- D. Fatigue at the end of the day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Headache unrelieved by medication may indicate worsening gestational hypertension or preeclampsia.
A client in the first stage of labor reports severe lower back pain. What intervention is most effective?
- A. Administer an epidural block.
- B. Encourage frequent position changes.
- C. Apply a heating pad to the back.
- D. Perform a sterile vaginal exam.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Frequent position changes, especially to hands-and-knees or leaning forward, can relieve back pain caused by fetal position.