Nokea
The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with cardiac disease at the 30 weeks' gestation antenatal visit. The nurse assesses lung sounds in the lower lobes after a routine blood pressure screening. The nurse performs this assessment to elicit what information?
- A. Identify mitral valve prolapse.
- B. Identify cardiac dysrhythmias.
- C. Rule out the possibility of pneumonia.
- D. Assess for early signs of heart failure (HF).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fluid volume during pregnancy peaks between 18 and 32 weeks' gestation. During this period, it is essential to observe and record maternal data that would indicate further signs of cardiac decompensation or HF in the pregnant client with cardiac disease. By assessing lung sounds, the nurse may identify early symptoms of diminished oxygen exchange and potential HF. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not related to the data in the question.
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A preschooler with a history of cleft palate repair comes to the clinic for a routine well-child checkup. To determine whether this child is experiencing a long-term effect of cleft palate, which question should the nurse ask the parent?
- A. Does the child play with an imaginary friend?
- B. Was the child recently treated for pneumonia?
- C. Does the child respond when called by name?
- D. Has the child had any difficulty swallowing food?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A child with cleft palate is at risk for developing frequent otitis media, which can result in hearing loss. Unresponsiveness may be an indication that the child is experiencing hearing loss. Option 1 is normal behavior for a preschool child. Many preschoolers with vivid imaginations have imaginary friends. Options 2 and 4 are unrelated to cleft palate after repair.
To assure the desired results, how should the nurse instruct the client prescribed oral bisacodyl to take the medication?
- A. At bedtime
- B. With a large meal
- C. With a glass of milk
- D. On an empty stomach
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that works by stimulating peristalsis in the colon. To ensure its effectiveness, it should be taken at bedtime to produce a bowel movement in the morning, typically 6 to 12 hours after administration. Taking it with a large meal or milk may reduce its effectiveness due to delayed gastric emptying or interaction with food. Taking it on an empty stomach may cause stomach irritation and is not necessary for its action.
An adult client has undergone a lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. After reviewing the results of the analysis, the nurse recognizes that the CSF is normal when which element is negative?
- A. Protein
- B. Glucose
- C. Red blood cells
- D. White blood cells
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The adult with a normal CSF has no red blood cells in the CSF. Protein (15-45 mg/dL [0.15-0.45 g/L]) and glucose (50-75 mg/dL [2.8-4.2 mmol/L]) are normally present in CSF. The client may have small levels of white blood cells (0-5 cells/mcL [0-5 × 10^6/L]).
The nurse is caring for a client with a terminal condition who is dying. Which respiratory assessment findings should indicate to the nurse that death is imminent? Select all that apply.
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Kussmaul's respiration
- E. Irregular respiratory pattern
- F. Adventitious bubbling lung sounds
Correct Answer: A,B,E,F
Rationale: Respiratory assessment findings that indicate death is imminent include poor gas exchange as evidenced by hypoxia, dyspnea, or cyanosis; altered patterns of respiration, such as slow, labored, irregular, or Cheyne-Stokes pattern (alternating periods of apnea and deep, rapid breathing); increased respiratory secretions and adventitious bubbling lung sounds (death rattle); and irritation of the tracheobronchial airway as evidenced by hiccups, chest pain, fatigue, or exhaustion. Kussmaul's respirations are abnormally deep, very rapid sighing respirations characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis. Tachypnea is defined as rapid breathing.
A client is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. The primary health care provider has added 7 cm of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the client's ventilator settings. The nurse should assess for which expected but adverse effect of PEEP?
- A. Decreased peak pressure on the ventilator
- B. Increased rectal temperature from 98°F to 100°F
- C. Decreased heart rate from 78 to 64 beats per minute
- D. Systolic blood pressure decrease from 122 to 98 mm Hg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP improves oxygenation by enhancing gas exchange and preventing atelectasis. PEEP leads to increased intrathoracic pressure, which in turn leads to decreased cardiac output. This is manifested in the client by decreased systolic blood pressure and increased pulse (compensatory). Peak pressures on the ventilator should not be affected, although the pressure at the end of expiration remains positive at the level set for the PEEP. Fever indicates respiratory infection or infection from another source.