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The nurse is assigned to care for a client experiencing hypertonic labor contractions. The nurse plans to conserve the client's energy and promote rest by performing which intervention?
- A. Keeping the TV or radio on to provide distraction
- B. Assisting the client with breathing and relaxation techniques
- C. Keeping the room brightly lit so the client can watch her monitor
- D. Avoiding uncomfortable procedures such as intravenous infusions or epidural anesthesia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Breathing and relaxation techniques aid the client in coping with the discomfort of labor and conserving energy. Noise from a TV or radio and light stimulation does not promote rest. A quiet, dim environment would be more advantageous. Intravenous or epidural pain relief can be useful. Intravenous hydration can increase perfusion and oxygenation of maternal and fetal tissues and provide glucose for energy needs.
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The nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin. Which manifestations correlate with a digoxin level of 2.3 ng/dL (2.93 nmol/L)? Select all that apply.
- A. Nausea
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Photophobia
- D. Increased appetite
- E. Increased energy level
- F. Seeing halos around bright objects
Correct Answer: A,B,C,F
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to manage and treat heart failure, control ventricular rate in clients with atrial fibrillation, and treat and prevent recurrent paroxysmal atrial tachycardia. The therapeutic range is 0.8 to 2.0 ng/mL (1.02 to 2.56 nmol/L). Signs of toxicity include gastrointestinal disturbances, including anorexia, nausea, and vomiting; neurological abnormalities such as fatigue, headache, depression, weakness, drowsiness, confusion, and nightmares; facial pain; personality changes; and ocular disturbances such as photophobia, halos around bright lights, and yellow or green color perception.
A client is admitted to the cardiac intensive care unit after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. The nurse notes that in the first hour after admission, the mediastinal chest tube drainage was 75 mL. During the second hour, the drainage has dropped to 5 mL. The nurse interprets this data and implements which intervention?
- A. Identifies that the tube is draining normally
- B. Assesses the tube to locate a possible occlusion
- C. Auscultates the lungs for appropriate bilateral expansion
- D. Assists the client with frequent coughing and deep breathing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After CABG surgery, chest tube drainage should not exceed 100 to 150 mL per hour during the first 2 hours postoperatively, and approximately 500 mL of drainage is expected in the first 24 hours after CABG surgery. The sudden drop in drainage between the first and second hour indicates that the tube is possibly occluded and requires further assessment by the nurse. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect interventions.
The nurse admits a client who is bleeding freely from a scalp laceration that resulted from a fall. The nurse should take which action first in the care of this wound?
- A. Prepare for suturing the area.
- B. Determine when the client last had a tetanus vaccine.
- C. Cleanse the wound by flushing with sterile normal saline.
- D. Apply direct pressure to the laceration to stop the bleeding.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the presence of active bleeding from a scalp laceration, the priority is to control the bleeding to prevent further blood loss and stabilize the client. Applying direct pressure to the laceration is the most effective initial action to achieve this. Preparing for suturing, determining tetanus vaccine status, and cleansing the wound are important but secondary actions that follow after bleeding is controlled.
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving blood transfusion therapy. Which clinical manifestations should alert the nurse to a hemolytic transfusion reaction? Select all that apply.
- A. Headache
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Apprehension
- E. Distended neck veins
- F. A sense of impending doom
Correct Answer: A,B,D,F
Rationale: Hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by blood type or Rh incompatibility. When blood containing antigens different from the client's own antigens is infused, antigen-antibody complexes are formed in the client's blood. These complexes destroy the transfused cells and start inflammatory responses in the client's blood vessel walls and organs. The reaction may include fever and chills or may be life-threatening with disseminated intravascular coagulation and circulatory collapse. Other manifestations include headache, tachycardia, apprehension, a sense of impending doom, chest pain, low back pain, tachypnea, hypotension, and hemoglobinuria. The onset may be immediate or may not occur until subsequent units have been transfused. Distended neck veins are characteristics of circulatory overload.
A client has been admitted with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. During history taking, the nurse should ask the client about a recent history of which event?
- A. Bleeding ulcer
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Deep vein thrombosis
- D. Streptococcal infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The predominant cause of acute glomerulonephritis is infection with beta-hemolytic Streptococcus 3 weeks before the onset of symptoms. In addition to bacteria, other infectious agents that could trigger the disorder include viruses, fungi, and parasites. Bleeding ulcer, myocardial infarction, and deep vein thrombosis are not precipitating causes.